Q1. Vibration white finger refers to:

Q2. Which of the following are criteria for cancer screening? I. Screening test should be sensitive and specific  II. Screening test should be acceptable to the screened population  III. The disease should be an uncommon one for screening to be effective  IV. Disease should be recognisable at an early stage Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q3. A 45-year-old lady presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle weakness along with bilateral multiple renal calculi which were picked up on a routine ultrasound. Further workup revealed serum calcium levels of . What is the next best investigation required to arrive at a diagnosis?

Q4. Which of the following are the aetiological factors associated with a communicating hydrocephalus? I. Post haemorrhagic  II. Lesions within the ventricle  III. CSF infection  IV. Raised CSF protein Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q5. Which of the following statements are correct regarding a brain abscess? I. Abscesses arise when the brain is exposed directly as a result of fracture or infection of air sinus.  II. Presenting features include low grade fever, confusion, seizures and focal deficits.  III. MRI with contrast is the initial imaging modality of choice.  IV. The aetological agents include bacteria, fungi, protozoa and viruses. Select the answer using the code given below:

Q6. What is the most common type of tumour of Vermiform Appendix?

Q7. The earliest specific cystoscopic appearance of Bilharzial cystitis is:

Q8. Which one of the following best describes craniosynostosis?

Q9. A 60-year-old female presents with pain in her back of recent onset, which has become severe of late. During the course of investigations, she was found to have lytic lesions in the vertebrae and ribs. Which of the following organs should be carefully screened now for detecting the primary cause of these lesions?

Q10. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Cauda equine syndrome? I. Its presenting symptoms are perineal numbness, painless urinary retention and fecal incontinence.  II. Urgent investigation with MRI is required.  III. It is present most commonly in the 45-60 year age group.  IV. Confirmed cases require early surgical decompression. Select the answer using the code given below:

Q11. The commonest site of pressure sore is:

Q12. Resection of which part of intestine does not significantly affect fluid and electrolyte balance?

Q13. Good measure of systemic perfusion by ABG is by measurement of:

Q14. Which of the following are congenital abnormalities of the gall bladder? I. The phrygian cap  II. Floating gall bladder  III. Absence of gall bladder  IV. Spigelian gall bladder Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q15. Which of the following are functions of the gall bladder? I. Reservoir for bile  II. Production of bile  III. Secretion of mucus  IV. Concentration of bile Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q16. Which one of following statements is correct regarding Budd-Chiari Syndrome (BCS)?

Q17. Which one of the following is correct regarding splenic artery aneurysm?

Q18. Which of the following statements are correct regarding primary survey/management of traumatic head injury patient? I. Ensure adequate oxygenation and circulation  II. Exclude hypoglycaemia  III. Check for mechanism of injury  IV. Check pupil size and response Select the answer using the code given below:

Q19. Which of the following statements are correct regarding ABCDE of trauma care? I. A stands for Airway with cervical spine protection  II. B stands for Breathing and ventilation  III. C stands for Control of massive external haemorrhage  IV. D stands for Disability (Neurological status) Select the answer using the code given below:

Q20. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Inguinal hernias in children? I. It is more common in full-term boys.  II. It should be repaired promptly.  III. It is always indirect.  IV. It may frequently be transilluminant. Select the answer using the code given below:

Q21. The most common site of urethral opening in cases of hypospadias is:

Q22. Which of the following about Minimal Access Surgery are correct? I. Decreased intraoperative heat loss  II. Improved visualization  III. Increased chances of herniation  IV. Improved mobility Select the answer using the code given below:

Q23. The maximum safe dose for Lignocaine (without adrenaline) as a local anaesthetic drug is:

Q24. Which of the following are the symptoms commonly experienced by patients with lymphoedema? I. Swelling  II. Burning sensation  III. Intolerance to cold  IV. Cramps Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q25. Which of the following are the malignancies associated with lymphoedema? I. Kaposi Sarcoma  II. Squamous cell carcinoma  III. Malignant melanoma  IV. Leukaemia Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q26. Which of the following are the techniques commonly used to close the raw area after excision of a pilonidal sinus in order to avoid a midline wound? I. Limberg procedure  II. Y-V plasty  III. Z-plasty  IV. Karydakis procedure Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q27. A 45-year-old lady presents with history of a painless lump in the right breast since 1 month. On examination, the lump is hard,  in size in the upper outer quadrant and is not fixed to the skin or the underlying structures. The axilla reveals firm mobile lymph nodes (level I). Rest of systemic examination is normal. The clinical stage of this disease is:

Q28. Which one of the following is considered the gold standard for the diagnosis of oesophageal motility disorders?

Q29. Which of the following are considered aetiological factors for Adenocarcinoma oesophagus? I. Barrett's oesophagus  II. Gastro-oesophageal reflux  III. Obesity  IV. Alcohol intake Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q30. Consider the following statements regarding Plummer-Vinson syndrome: I. Findings include cervical oesophageal web, iron deficiency anaemia and dysphagia.  II. It is a rare disease, mainly affecting middle-aged women.  III. There is predisposition to postcricoid, cervical oesophageal cancer.  IV. Treatment is usually surgical. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q31. Which of the following are correct regarding late dumping? I. It usually occurs during the second hour after meal.  II. It lasts for 30-40 minutes.  III. Major symptoms are tremor, faintness, prostration  IV. It is relieved by lying down. Select the answer using the code given below:

Q32. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding Gastric outlet obstruction associated with long standing peptic ulcer disease?

Q33. The commonly used muscle relaxant with quickest onset of action and spontaneous recovery is:

Q34. The first imaging modality of choice for a 35-year-old lady, presenting to surgical emergency with complaints of colicky pain in right lower quadrant of abdomen and vomiting since last 2 days is:

Q35. Mallampati test is used for the assessment of:

Q36. Consider the following: I. Diabetes  II. Hypertension  III. Renal failure  IV. Jaundice Which of the above are the risk factors for post-operative wound dehiscence?

Q37. If faced with a surgical emergency in a child of 15 years for whom no consent is available for life-saving surgery and no time for seeking authority from someone, the next step should be:

Q38. Which of the following information needs to be disclosed in order to establish valid consent for surgical treatment? I. Condition and reasons why it warrants surgery  II. Type of surgery proposed  III. Unexpected hazards of proposed surgery  IV. The surgical experience and expertise of the operating surgeon Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q39. A surgical department of a premier medical college conducted a study on rates of post-operative wound infection. The results of the study were negative for the proposed hypothesis. What should the department do with the results?

Q40. Which of the following statements are correct regarding sutures in surgery? I. Barbed sutures have the advantage of eliminating the need for knots.  II. Vertical mattress sutures help in eversion of wound edges.  III. Aberdeen knot is used for continuous suturing.  IV. Silk is preferred for subcuticular suturing. Select the answer using the code given below:

Q41. Chadwick's sign describes:

Q42. Which of the following treatments are recommended for a pregnant woman suffering from sickle cell disease? I. Folic acid 1 mg daily  II. Azathioprine  III. Penicillin prophylaxis  IV. Thromboprophylaxis with low molecular weight heparin Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q43. Which of the following are contraindications to External Cephalic Version (ECV) in breech? I. Pregnancy less than 36 weeks  II. Multiple pregnancy  III. Previous cesarean delivery  IV. Rhesus isoimmunization Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q44. Which of the following hematological findings are seen in pregnant women with thalassemia trait?

Q45. The best drug for maintenance therapy of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) during pregnancy is:

Q46. Which of the following maternal complications can be seen in hyperemesis gravidarum? I. Wernicke's encephalopathy  II. Hepatic failure  III. Hypoprothrombinemia  IV. Convulsions Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q47. The commonest ovarian tumour seen during pregnancy is:

Q48. Which of the following statements are correct regarding shoulder dystocia? I. It can be predicted during early labour.  II. Anencephaly is a risk factor.  III. Turtle neck sign is present.  IV. Episiotomy should always be given. Select the answer using the code given below:

Q49. A primigravida at 38 weeks pregnancy was put on oxytocin drip in view of slow labour at the rate of  by the newly appointed registrar. She complains of confusion and starts throwing fits. What electrolyte imbalance is expected to have happened in this case?

Q50. Which of the following factors favour posterior position of the vertex? I. Anthropoid pelvis  II. Low inclination pelvis  III. Attachment of placenta on the anterior wall  IV. Primary brachycephaly Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q51. Which of the following factors are associated with cord prolapse during labour? I. Malpresentations  II. Contracted pelvis  III. Stabilizing induction  IV. Prematurity Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q52. Detection of magnesium toxicity in a patient receiving magnesium sulphate is noticed by which of the following? I. Loss of tendon reflexes  II. Increased respiratory rate  III. Chest pain  IV. Cardiac arrest Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q53. Which one of the following is correct regarding postpartum psychosis?

Q54. Which of the following are correct in the treatment of cracked nipple? I. Correct attachment (Latch on) will provide immediate relief from pain and rapid healing.  II. If pain, mother should use breast pump and the infant is fed with the expressed milk.  III. Miconazole lotion is applied over the nipple as well as in the baby's mouth if there is oral thrush. Select the answer using the code given below:

Q55. Which of the following are correct regarding puerperal blues? I. Its incidence is around 50%.  II. There is no specific metabolic or endocrine derangement.  III. Treatment is reassurance and psychological support. Select the answer using the code given below:

Q56. The Matthews Duncan process has been described for:

Q57. A  lady after 4 hours of delivery is suffering from persistent, severe pain in the perineal region, rectal tenesmus, bearing down feeling and retention of urine. The probable diagnosis is:

Q58. According to WHO Intrapartum Care Guidelines 2018, which one of the following is correct about duration of first stage labour?

Q59. According to WHO Intrapartum Care Guidelines 2018, which of the following are correct about birthing position? I. For a woman without epidural analgesia, adoption of birthing position is individual woman's choice.  II. For a woman without epidural analgesia, upright birthing position may be adopted.  III. For a woman with epidural analgesia, lithotomy and supine position only are recommended. Select the answer using the code given below:

Q60. Twin pregnancy should have ultrasound at 10-13 weeks to confirm which of the following? I. Number of foetus  II. Viability of foetus  III. Chorionicity of twins  IV. Malformation in either foetus Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q61. Which of the following are neonatal complications of maternal diabetes during pregnancy? I. Hyperbilirubinemia  II. Hypercalcemia  III. Cardiomyopathy  IV. Hypoglycemia Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q62. Which of the following are the predictive factors for Fetal Growth Restriction (FGR)? I. Low level of maternal  trimester Beta   II. Abnormal uterine artery Doppler at 20-24 weeks of pregnancy  III. Fetal echogenic bowel on ultrasound  IV. Maternal medical disorder Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q63. Which of the following is the primary surveillance tool in the Growth Restricted Fetus?

Q64. Glands of Cloquet are:

Q65. Causes of AUB are subdivided by the acronym PALM-COEIN. What are the characteristics of PALM causes? I. Structural lesions  II. Diagnosed by ultrasound  III. Confirmed by histopathology Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q66. Daily suppressive therapy for HSV-1 and HSV-2 is:

Q67. Which of the following are the primary organisms involved in PID? I.  gonorrhoeae  II. Chlamydia  III. Mycoplasma hominis  IV. Candida albicans Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q68. What are the characteristics of dermoid cyst? I. Germ cell ovarian tumour  II. Bilateral in  cases  III. Torsion is common  IV. Rupture is common Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q69. Which one of the following is not a differential diagnosis of chronic inversion of uterus?

Q70. A 28-year-old  presents to Gynaecology OPD with complaints of malodorous vaginal discharge. On examination, the discharge was found to be grayish-white in colour and adherent to vaginal walls. Which one of the following is a bedside diagnostic criterion for the causative organism?

Q71. Which of the following statements about hysterosalpingography, as an operative procedure, are correct? I. Tubal patency assessment following tuboplasty operation  II. Diagnosis of uterine synechiae  III. Detection of   IV. Diagnosis of subserosal fibroid Select the answer using the code given below:

Q72. Which of the following are indications of endometrial sampling? I. Endometrial tuberculosis  II. Endometrial polyp  III. Postmenopausal bleeding  IV. Abnormal uterine bleeding Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q73. A 30-year-old  female presents in Gynaecology emergency with acute abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of short duration (1 hour). She gives history of tubal ligation after birth of third child. On examination, right adnexal tenderness was found and os was closed. What is the probable diagnosis?

Q74. Which of the following statements are correct regarding audit in Obstetrics and Gynaecology? I. It can replace the out of date clinical practices with better ones.  II. It is an efficient educational tool.  III. It should be based on scientific evidences with facts and figures.  IV. It is not labour-intensive. Select the answer using the code given below:

Q75. Which of the following are poor prognostic factors in endometrial adenocarcinoma? I. Estrogen and progesterone receptor positivity  II. HER-2/neu gene expression  III. Histologic types papillary serous or clear cell carcinoma  IV. Aneuploid tumours Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q76. For which of the following conditions, surgery is indicated in a case of Fibroid Uterus? I. Symptomatic and failed medical management  II. Size  weeks  III. Pedunculated fibroid Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q77. Which of the following is measured without any straining while examination under POP-Q system?

Q77. Which of the following are criteria for opting Le Fort's operation for surgical correction of pelvic organ prolapse? I. Procidentia in old age  II. Unfit for long duration surgery  III. Associated uterine pathology  IV. Coital function no longer required Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q79. Opening of Bartholin's duct is in the:

Q80. Which of the following are Amsel's diagnostic criteria? I. Vaginal   II. Positive Whiff test  III. Presence of clue cells   IV. Positive bacterial vaginal culture Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q81. Which of the following indicators are considered for computing "Physical Quality of Life Index" (PQLI)? I. Infant mortality  II. Life expectancy at age one  III. Literacy  IV. Per capita income Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q82. Which one of the following terms is an "all-or-none phenomenon" and is best described as termination of all transmission of infection by extermination of the infectious agent?

Q83. "Objectives are set forth for different units and subunits, each of which prepares its own plan of action, usually on a short-term basis." The definition best sums up which one among the following terms?

Q84. The Panchayati Raj is a three-tier structure of rural local self-government in India with the three levels being village, block and district. Consider the following bodies: I. Gram Sabha  II. Gram Panchayat  III. Nyaya Panchayat  IV. Panchayat Samiti Which of the above bodies are present at the village level?

Q85. Many patients with unexplained rash and fever were reported from a village close to the Primary Health Centre (PHC). What is the first step in initiating the investigation of such an epidemic?

Q86. John Snow's discovery that cholera is a waterborne disease was the outcome of which type of study?

Q87. Given below is a table showing diagnosis of Myocardial infarction by ECG:  | ECG results | Myocardial infarction Present | Myocardial infarction Absent | | :—: | :—: | :—: | | Positive |  |  | | Negative |  |  | | Total |  |  | Consider the following statements: I. Sensitivity is .  II. Specificity is . Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q88. Data obtained from hospital records is not a representative sample of the population. What are the reasons for this? I. Mild cases and subclinical cases may be missed.  II. Population served by a hospital usually cannot be defined.  III. Cost of hospital care is not recorded.  IV. Admission policy for cases can vary from hospital to hospital. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q89. Of the following ocular manifestations of Vitamin A deficiency, the first sign that can be clinically seen is:

Q90. The bony deformity of 'pigeon chest' in children occurs due to deficiency of:

Q91. Which one among the following essential amino acids is usually the "limiting" amino acid in most of the pulses?

Q92. Which among the following are defence mechanisms adopted when an individual is faced with problems or failures? I. Rationalization  II. Regression  III. Projection  IV. Replacement Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q93. What are the reasons for choosing coliform organisms as indicators of faecal pollution of water rather than the waterborne pathogens directly? I. They are present in great abundance in the human intestine and excreted in great numbers in faeces.  II. They have lower resistance to forces of natural purification.  III. They survive lesser than the pathogens.  IV. They are easily detected by culture methods. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q94. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched a programme to meet the challenge of high prevalence of anaemia amongst adolescent boys and girls. Consider the following statements in relation to the key interventions being undertaken: I. It entails supervised weekly administration of  elemental iron and  folic acid.  II. These weekly iron-folic acid supplements are administered by using a fixed day approach.  III. It entails supervised administration of Albendazole  every three months for control of helminth infestation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q95. The National Framework for Malaria Elimination in India (2016-2030) has defined certain milestones and targets. Among the following, which is the specific target that has to be met by the year 2027?

Q96. Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, the beneficiaries are being provided with a minimum package of antenatal care including certain investigations and drugs on a fixed day of every month. Which day of the month is specified for this purpose?

Q97. "Small for Date" () babies, also known as "small for gestational age" babies, weigh less than what percentile for the gestational age?

Q98. In the most widespread calculation of Stillbirth Rate, the numerator is defined as foetal deaths weighing over '' gram at birth, during the year. Which one of the following is the correct value for ''?

Q99. While performing triage in response to a disaster emergency, commonly an internationally accepted four-colour code system is used. Which one among the following four-colour categories represents the highest priority for emergency response?

Q100. Consider the following statements with regard to Ice-Lined Refrigerator () employed for storing vaccines at the sub-district level: I. These types of refrigerators are top-opening.  II. Based on the temperature zone, the inside of  can be divided into  parts.  III. The upper part of  is cooler compared to the lower part.  IV. Vaccines should never be kept directly on the floor of the  as they can get damaged. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q101. Which one of the following is the major contributor to the total energy intake, in terms of energy provided, in an average Indian diet?

Q102. Consider the following with regard to Amino Acids: I. Essential Amino Acids are those that the body cannot synthesize and they must be obtained from dietary proteins.  II. Not just the Essential Amino Acids, Non-essential Amino Acids are also needed by the body for synthesis of tissue proteins.  III. Unless a protein contains all the Essential Amino Acids in amounts corresponding to human needs, a protein is said to be biologically incomplete.  IV. Animal proteins are rated superior to vegetable proteins. Of the above statements, how many are correct?

Q103. Which of the following strategies were encouraged by the UNICEF under its 'GOBI Campaign'? I.  for growth charts to better monitor child development  II.  for oral rehydration to treat all mild and moderate dehydration  III.  for better and continuous evaluation of children up to  years of age  IV.  for immunization against measles, diphtheria, polio, pertussis, tetanus and tuberculosis Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q104. What is the limit of daily exposure of noise that people can tolerate without substantial damage to their hearing?

Q105. How much illumination is recommended by the Illuminating Engineering Society for the general office work?

Q106. Dietary fibres have:

Q107. Egg proteins are considered to be the best among food proteins because: I. of their biological value II. of their digestibility III. they contain all the essential amino acids IV. their calorie content is higher than in proteins of vegetable sources Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Q108. On a chest radiograph, which of the following occupational diseases is most likely to be mistaken as a case of tuberculosis of lungs?

Q109. With which variety of asbestos, Mesothelioma has been shown to have a strong association?

Q110. Under the Biomedical Waste Management Rules 2016, human anatomical waste is to be carried in which colour plastic bags?

Q111. As an index of thermal comfort, the 'Corrected Effective Temperature' is considered to be an improvement over 'Effective Temperature'. It deals with which of the following factors? I. Air velocity  II. Humidity  III. Mean radiant heat  IV. Sweat rate Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q112. In a child who has not received any dose of  and  immunization, up to what age can these vaccines be given under the Universal Immunization Programme?

Q113. A traveller who has passed through a yellow fever endemic zone and does not possess a Certificate of Vaccination against yellow fever, enters a yellow fever 'receptive' area. For how long from the date of leaving the infected area must this traveller be placed on quarantine in a mosquito-proof ward?

Q114. Under the Employees' State Insurance Act 1948, if the sickness of an insured person is duly certified by an Insurance Medical Officer, periodical cash payment benefit is payable for maximum period of how many days in any continuous period of  days, as Sickness Benefit?

Q115. Consider the following statements regarding Wernicke's encephalopathy: I. It is caused by niacin deficiency.  II. It is often seen in alcoholics.  III. Ophthalmoplegia, polyneuritis and ataxia are some of its characteristic features.  IV. It occurs occasionally in people who fast. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q116. A housefly transmits any infectious agent by which of the following methods, most commonly?

Q117. In the case of a 7-year-old school-going child, which would be the most appropriate indicator to measure the current nutritional status?

Q118. Consider the following statements with regard to Home Based Newborn Care (): I. Early detection and special care of pre-term newborns is one of the major objectives of .  II.  is the main person involved in the delivery of .  III. Supporting the family for adoption of healthy practices helps achieve the key objectives of .  IV. The primary aim of  is to improve newborn survival. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Q119. Which of the following conditions are transmitted as a recessive, sex-linked trait? I. Retinitis pigmentosa  II. Colour blindness  III. Cystic fibrosis  IV. Duchenne muscular dystrophy Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q120. Under which name (brand) does the National AIDS Control Organisation provide the  services?