Anemia classification · 2023 P1 Q36

Q1. Which one of the following is associated with low MCV of red blood cells?

1. Thalassemia
2. Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia
3. Folate deficiency anaemia
4. Sickle cell anaemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 215

Anemia classification · 2021 P1 Q57

Q2. A 30-year-old female presents with malaise, breathlessness off and on and paraesthesias. She is vegetarian by diet. Her investigation revealed Hb = 6.2 gm/dL, MCV = 128 fL, platelet count = 1,20,000/cumm, with blood smear showing macrocytosis and neutrophil hypersegmentation. What is the likely diagnosis?

1. Iron deficiency anemia
2. Myelophthisic anemia
3. Megaloblastic anemia
4. Aplastic anemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 86

Anemia classification · 2025 P1 Q40

Q3. A 46 year old lady on vegan diet for a decade presents with chief complaints of tingling and numbness in lower limbs for two months and a history of swaying while walking through narrow corridors. Which one of the following blood tests is advisable for diagnosis in this patient?

1. Serum protein electrophoresis
2. Anti-gliadin antibodies
3. Vitamin 25(OH) D level
4. Vitamin B12 levels

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 384

Anemia classification · 2022 P1 Q69

Q4. In which of the following is a high reticulocyte production index seen? 1. Sickle cell disease 2. Vitamin B-12 deficiency 3. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency 4. Blood loss Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 159

Anemia classification · 2020 P1 Q49

Q5. All the following are causes of reactive thrombocytosis, EXCEPT:

1. Hemolytic anemia
2. Megaloblastic anemia
3. Post splenectomy
4. Chronic inflammatory disorders

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 20

Anemia classification · 2022 P1 Q72

Q6. Red cell protoporphyrin levels will be raised in which of the following conditions? 1. Absolute iron deficiency 2. Relative iron deficiency 3. Lead poisoning Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 160

Anemia classification · 2022 P1 Q73

Q7. Negative Iron Balance is the first stage in the progression to Iron Deficiency Anemia. Which of the following laboratory investigations will be found deranged in this stage, thereby pointing to early iron-store depletion? 1. Bone Marrow Iron Stores 2. Percent transferrin saturation 3. Serum ferritin 4. Total Iron Binding Capacity Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 160

Anemia classification · 2022 P2 Q85

Q8. The single most sensitive tool for evaluating the iron status in an individual is:

1. haemoglobin concentration
2. serum iron concentration
3. serum ferritin value
4. serum transferrin saturation

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 199

Anemia classification · 2023 P2 Q43

Q9. A typical case of Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) in pregnancy will show which of the following? 1. Hb less than 10 gm% 2. PCV less than 30% 3. MCHC more than 30% 4. Microcytic hypochromic picture on peripheral blood smear (PBS) Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 252

Anemia classification · 2023 P2 Q68

Q10. Which of the following are blood values of Iron Deficiency Anemia? 1. Serum iron is less than 30 µg/100 mL 2. Total iron binding capacity is less than 400 µg/dL 3. Percentage saturation is 10% or less 4. Serum ferritin is below 30 µg/L Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 259

Anemia classification · 2024 P2 Q104

Q11. In India, the most widely prevalent stage of iron deficiency is:

1. decreased iron stores without any other detectable abnormalities
2. fall in percentage saturation of transferrin
3. overt iron deficiency with impaired haemoglobin synthesis
4. decrease in the concentration of circulating haemoglobin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 357

Anemia classification · 2021 P2 Q49

Q12. During pregnancy iron supplementation is needed for:

1. all pregnant mothers from 16 weeks onwards
2. only those pregnant mothers who have Hb < 10 gm%
3. only those pregnant mothers who are not eating green vegetables
4. all pregnant mothers since 6 weeks of pregnancy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 122

Anemia classification · 2021 P2 Q102

Q13. The amount of iron lost per 28 day cycle in menstruating women is:

1. 5.5 mg
2. 8.5 mg
3. 12.5 mg
4. 15.5 mg

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 135

Anemia classification · 2023 P2 Q41

Q14. The daily requirement of iron during the second half of pregnancy is:

1. 2 mg per day
2. 6 mg per day
3. 10 mg per day
4. 20 mg per day

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 252

Anemia classification · 2023 P1 Q98

Q15. A full-term baby born with a birth weight of 2000 g comes for a well-baby visit at two months of age. Which of the following nutritional supplements would you advise?

1. Vitamin D orally 200 IU/day up to 3 months of age
2. Vitamin D orally 200 IU/day up to 1 year of age
3. Iron orally 2 mg/kg/day up to 3 months of age
4. Iron orally 2 mg/kg/day up to 1 year of age

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 233

Anemia classification · 2024 P1 Q103

Q16. Which of the following are correct regarding activities under the Weekly Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation (WIFS) program? 1. Administration of supervised weekly iron-folic acid supplements of 100 mg elemental iron and 500 µg folic acid 2. Administration of supervised weekly iron-folic acid supplements of 60 mg elemental iron and 0.5 mg folic acid 3. Biannual de-worming with albendazole 4. Annual de-worming with albendazole Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 4
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 4
4. 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 311

Anemia classification · 2021 P1 Q54

Q17. Which of the following are decreased during pregnancy? 1. Iron stores 2. Vitamin B12 levels 3. Folate levels 4. Coagulation factors Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 85

Anemia classification · 2020 P1 Q97

Q18. An 8 year old child has consumed a few tablets of a drug that were being taken by his mother on a regular basis. Following this the child develops gastric necrosis, acidosis, shock and hepatic necrosis. Which is the most likely drug?

1. Multivitamins
2. Calcium carbonate
3. Folic acid
4. Iron

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 32

Anemia classification · 2022 P1 Q111

Q19. In a child with high anion gap metabolic acidosis, poisoning with which of the following may be suspected?

1. Iron
2. Digoxin
3. Rifampicin
4. Beta blockers

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 170

Anemia classification · 2024 P1 Q106

Q20. Whole Bowel Irrigation (WBI) as a method of gastrointestinal decontamination is useful for poisoning with:

1. Alcohol
2. Iron
3. Kerosene
4. Organophosphorus

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 313

Anemia classification · 2025 P1 Q39

Q21. A 35 year female presents with easy fatigability. Investigations show that Hb is 6 g%; Red cell morphology is normocytic normochromic; and reticulocyte production index is 5.5. Which one of the following conditions favours this abnormality?

1. Iron deficiency anemia
2. Sideroblastic anemia
3. Folate deficiency
4. Intravascular hemolysis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 383

Anemia classification · 2021 P1 Q52

Q22. Which of the following investigations indicate active hemolysis? 1. Increased reticulocyte count 2. Increased conjugated bilirubin 3. Increased urinary urobilinogen 4. Decreased haptoglobin Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 85

Anemia classification · 2021 P1 Q53

Q23. Which type of anemia can be caused by the drug Dapsone?

1. Iron deficiency anemia
2. Sideroblastic anemia
3. Spur cell anemia
4. Hemolytic anemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 85

Anemia classification · 2021 P1 Q51

Q24. Which of the following statements regarding G6PD enzyme deficiency are correct? 1. It is an X-linked deficiency. 2. Geographical distribution parallels the malaria belt. 3. Consumption of fava beans is protective. 4. Transfusion support may be life-saving. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 85

Anemia classification · 2022 P1 Q74

Q25. Which of the following drugs carry a definite risk of causing clinical hemolysis in persons suffering from Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency? 1. Primaquine 2. Dapsone 3. Cotrimoxazole 4. Nitrofurantoin Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 3 and 4
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 160

Anemia classification · 2023 P1 Q35

Q26. Which one of the following conditions characteristically may present with a triad of haemolysis, pancytopenia and venous thrombosis?

1. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
2. Hereditary spherocytosis
3. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
4. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 215

Anemia classification · 2024 P1 Q45

Q27. A 39-year-old female presents with severe autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Which of the following should be the initial step in its management?

1. Prednisolone
2. Rituximab
3. Emergency splenectomy
4. Plasmapheresis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 292

Anemia classification · 2020 P1 Q51

Q28. Pyruvate kinase deficiency results in deficiency of ATP production and a chronic hemolytic anemia. The disorder is inherited as an:

1. Autosomal recessive trait
2. X-linked recessive trait
3. Autosomal dominant trait
4. X-linked dominant trait

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 20

Anemia classification · 2020 P1 Q54

Q29. Every individual carries four alpha gene alleles. Deletion of three alleles leads to development of:

1. Haemoglobin X disease
2. Haemoglobin H disease
3. Haemoglobin F disease
4. Hydrops fetalis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 20

Anemia classification · 2024 P2 Q110

Q30. Consider the following statements: Statement I: Signs of thalassemia major usually develop after 6 months of age. Statement II: This is the time when haemoglobin synthesis switches from haemoglobin F to haemoglobin A. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 360

Anemia classification · 2025 P2 Q44

Q31. Which of the following hematological findings are seen in pregnant women with thalassemia trait?

1. Raised HbA₂ and low MCV
2. Low MCHC
3. Low serum total iron binding capacity
4. Low HbA₂ and raised MCV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 436

Anemia classification · 2022 P1 Q19

Q32. Which of the following are the etiologies of haemochromatosis? 1. Thalassemia 2. Anemia of pyruvate kinase deficiency 3. Chronic cor pulmonale 4. Porphyria cutanea tarda Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 146

Anemia classification · 2025 P1 Q82

Q33. Which of the following are secondary iron overload conditions? I. Transfusion related iron load II. Thalassemia III. Hepatitis C associated liver disease Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I, II and III
4. I and III only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 400

Purpura & Platelet Disorders · 2023 P1 Q35

Q34. Which one of the following conditions characteristically may present with a triad of haemolysis, pancytopenia and venous thrombosis?

1. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
2. Hereditary spherocytosis
3. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
4. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 215

Purpura & Platelet Disorders · 2023 P1 Q88

Q35. Which one of the following is the primary underlying mechanism of haemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?

1. ABO incompatibility
2. Red cell fragmentation
3. Complement-mediated destruction of CD59(-) red blood cells
4. Exotoxins produced by Clostridium perfringens

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 230

Purpura & Platelet Disorders · 2021 P1 Q56

Q36. A 20-year-old young girl presents with heavy menstrual bleeding, petechiae on her arms and blood blisters in mouth. Her complete blood count shows hemoglobin 7 gm/dL, total leucocyte count 8,700 cells/µL and platelet count of 6,000/µL with peripheral smear showing large platelets. Which is likely the best initial drug treatment for this patient?

1. High dose glucocorticoids
2. High dose glucocorticoids with IVIgG
3. High dose glucocorticoids with Rituximab
4. IVIgG with anti-Rho(D)

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 86

Purpura & Platelet Disorders · 2025 P1 Q43

Q37. With regard to management of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, consider the following statements: I. All patients with ITP with platelet count less than 100×10⁹/L should receive high dose of glucocorticoids II. For patient with spontaneous bleeding, 40 mg of dexamethasone daily is indicated for 4 days III. Intravenous immunoglobulin can raise the platelet count IV. Life threatening bleeding should be treated with platelet transfusion Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. I, II and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 385

Purpura & Platelet Disorders · 2021 P2 Q26

Q38. Which of the following are indications of splenectomy? 1. Pseudomyxoma peritonei 2. Trauma 3. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) 4. Hypersplenism Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 114

Purpura & Platelet Disorders · 2024 P1 Q71

Q39. Which one of the following statements is characteristic of Purpura fulminans?

1. Non-hemorrhagic bullae usually present over extremities
2. Present as large ecchymosis with irregular shapes
3. Autoimmune disorder and never associated with any infection
4. Asplenic patients are protected and do not develop this disease

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 301

Heavy Metal Poisoning · 2021 P2 Q107

Q40. Most industrial workers are exposed to lead as an occupational hazard. Which of the following statements regarding lead poisoning are correct? 1. Lead poisoning is also called plumbism 2. Basophilic stippling of red blood cells is seen 3. Progressive massive fibrosis of lungs is seen 4. Coproporphyrin in urine (CPU) is a useful screening test Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 136

Heavy Metal Poisoning · 2023 P2 Q106

Q41. With regard to lead poisoning, consider the following statements: 1. Coproporphyrin in urine is a useful screening test 2. Hand washing before eating is an important measure of personal hygiene 3. The use of d-penicillamine has been reported to be effective in management Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 270

Heavy Metal Poisoning · 2024 P2 Q108

Q42. An industrial worker was brought to a medical facility due to health problems. On his workup including laboratory tests, a finding of basophilic stippling of Red Blood Cells (RBC) was observed. Which among the following is he/she likely to be having?

1. Asbestosis
2. Farmer’s lung
3. Lead poisoning
4. Brucellosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 359

Heavy Metal Poisoning · 2025 P1 Q65

Q43. Which one of the following is the correct description of Mee’s lines, seen in chronic arsenic poisoning?

1. Transverse white lines on nails of fingers and toes
2. Transverse red lines on the skin of palms and soles
3. Transverse white lines on the skin of palms and soles
4. Transverse red lines on the nails of fingers and toes

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 394

Respiratory System · 2023 P1 Q13

Q44. The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration is called

1. expiratory residual volume
2. functional residual capacity
3. residual volume
4. vital capacity

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 210

Respiratory System · 2023 P1 Q9

Q45. A decline in total lung capacity to less than 80% of patient’s predictive value is an indication of

1. restrictive lung disease
2. obstructive lung disease
3. pulmonary artery hypertension
4. pulmonary embolism

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 209

Respiratory System · 2020 P1 Q17

Q46. The most frequent symptom of respiratory diseases?

1. Breathlessness
2. Chest pain
3. Hemoptysis
4. Cough

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 11

Respiratory System · 2020 P1 Q19

Q47. Consider the following statements with regard to respiratory examination: 1. Change in note when patient phonates “EEE” (Egophony) is characteristic of interstitial fibrosis 2. Whispered pectoriloquy is characteristic of lung consolidation 3. Monophonic wheeze is characteristic of asthma 4. Hyper-resonant note on percussion is characteristic of pneumothorax Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 11

Respiratory System · 2025 P1 Q15

Q48. Consider the following statements regarding respiratory function in old age: I. There is increasing ventilation-perfusion mismatch II. There is increased ventilatory response to hypoxia and hypercapnia III. There is a decline in maximum oxygen uptake leading to reduction in cardiorespiratory reserve IV. There is decline in the FEV1/FVC ratio by around 0.2% per year after the forties Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. II, III and IV
4. I, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 374

Respiratory System · 2021 P1 Q12

Q49. Which of the following are categorized under obstructive lung disease? 1. Bronchial asthma 2. Bronchiectasis 3. Bronchiolitis 4. Pulmonary sarcoidosis Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 74

Respiratory System · 2022 P1 Q13

Q50. Which of the following are correct regarding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis? 1. Radiological pattern of usual interstitial pneumonia 2. Finger clubbing 3. More common in elderly Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 144

Respiratory System · 2020 P1 Q16

Q51. The most common cause of chronic type II respiratory failure is:

1. Severe pneumonia
2. Severe COPD
3. Severe bronchial asthma
4. Severe pulmonary thromboembolism

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 10

Respiratory System · 2021 P1 Q96

Q52. Which one of the following is not a usual cause of Type-2 respiratory failure?

1. Guillain-Barré syndrome
2. Upper airway obstruction
3. Pulmonary embolism
4. Flail chest

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 97

Respiratory System · 2025 P1 Q78

Q53. Peri-operative respiratory failure is an example of

1. Type I respiratory failure
2. Type II respiratory failure
3. Type III respiratory failure
4. Type IV respiratory failure

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 399

Respiratory System · 2020 P1 Q12

Q54. Oral corticosteroids are best introduced in the treatment of chronic bronchial asthma when it is:

1. Mild persistent
2. Moderate persistent
3. Severe persistent
4. Very severe persistent

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 10

Respiratory System · 2021 P1 Q14

Q55. Which one of the following is not an aim of asthma therapy?

1. Peak expiratory flow circadian variation < 20%
2. No emergency visits
3. Minimal use of inhaled corticosteroid
4. Minimal use of beta-2-agonists

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 74

Respiratory System · 2022 P1 Q11

Q56. Which of the following are Controller Therapies in the management of acute asthma? 1. Anticholinergics 2. Systemic glucocorticoids 3. Inhaled glucocorticoids 4. Omalizumab Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 144

Respiratory System · 2022 P1 Q14

Q57. Diagnostic work-up for a case of suspected Bronchial asthma should reveal which of the following abnormalities? 1. Reduced FEV1/FVC 2. Increased functional residual volume 3. Reduced diffusion capacity 4. Increment in FEV1 in response to inhaled bronchodilators Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 144

Respiratory System · 2022 P2 Q70

Q58. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in laboring women with bronchial asthma? 1. Opioid analgesics 2. Prostaglandin F2α 3. Prostaglandin E1 4. Ergometrine Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 195

Respiratory System · 2025 P1 Q7

Q59. Consider the following steps for using a metered dose inhaler (MDI): I. Incline the head backward to minimize oropharyngeal deposition II. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler III. Breathe out gently and place the mouthpiece into the mouth IV. Hold the breath for 10 seconds V. Simultaneously, begin a slow deep inspiration, depress the canister and continue to inhale Which one of the following is the correct sequence of using MDI?

1. III, II, I, V, IV
2. II, I, IV, III, V
3. II, III, I, V, IV
4. III, I, II, IV, V

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 370

Respiratory System · 2025 P1 Q8

Q60. Under the Stepwise Approach to the management of Bronchial Asthma, which one of the following is the correct initial treatment at Step 1 for a patient diagnosed with Asthma?

1. Low dose inhaled corticosteroid only
2. Low dose inhaled corticosteroid plus oral corticosteroid
3. Low dose inhaled corticosteroid plus long acting anti-muscarinic agents
4. Low dose inhaled corticosteroid plus leukotriene antagonist

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 370

Respiratory System · 2025 P1 Q9

Q61. A 62-year old male chronic smoker has been diagnosed with COPD. On pulmonary function testing, the FEV1/FVC ratio was 0.6 and FEV1 was 70% of predicted. What is the severity of airflow obstruction in this patient as per GOLD criteria?

1. Stage I – Mild
2. Stage II – Moderate
3. Stage III – Severe
4. Stage IV – Very severe

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 371

Respiratory System · 2024 P1 Q14

Q62. A 65-year-old female, a stone-cutter by occupation had multiple well circumscribed nodular opacities in upper and middle zones of a chest X-ray along with mediastinal lymph nodes showing egg-shell calcification. Which one of the following is the most likely etiology?

1. Byssinosis
2. Silicosis
3. Berylliosis
4. Siderosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 282

Respiratory System · 2024 P2 Q107

Q63. Raju is 30 years of age. He has been working in the ceramic and pottery industry for the last 10 years. Which one of the following conditions should he be screened for?

1. Silicosis
2. Anthracosis
3. Byssinosis
4. Asbestosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 359

Respiratory System · 2025 P2 Q108

Q64. On a chest radiograph, which of the following occupational diseases is most likely to be mistaken as a case of tuberculosis of lungs?

1. Anthracosis
2. Silicosis
3. Siderosis
4. Byssinosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 465

Respiratory System · 2023 P2 Q104

Q65. Who among the following has two general phases — first, simple pneumoconiosis and a second phase characterized by progressive massive fibrosis (PMF)?

1. Anthracosis
2. Bagassosis
3. Byssinosis
4. Siderosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 270

Respiratory System · 2022 P1 Q61

Q66. As per the Gell and Coombs classification, Farmer’s lung is which type of hypersensitivity disease?

1. Type-I
2. Type-II
3. Type-III
4. Type-IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 157

Respiratory System · 2022 P2 Q119

Q67. The following table shows some pneumoconiosis diseases with their most implicated causative agents. Which represent the correct combinations of disease and causative agent? 1. Anthracosis — Coal dust 2. Bagassosis — Silica dust 3. Byssinosis — Cotton dust 4. Siderosis — Asbestos Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 206

Respiratory System · 2025 P2 Q109

Q68. With which variety of asbestos, Mesothelioma has been shown to have a strong association?

1. Amosite
2. Anthrophyllite
3. Crocidolite
4. Chrysolite

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 465

Respiratory System · 2020 P1 Q91

Q69. A young primigravida with 11 weeks pregnancy presents with sudden onset pain and swelling of left lower limb. Homan’s sign is positive. Duplex ultrasonogram shows non-compressibility of veins in the affected region, with absent flow. The drug of choice for treatment is:

1. Enoxaparin
2. Amoxycillin–Clavulanic acid
3. Warfarin
4. Limb elevation only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 30

Respiratory System · 2023 P2 Q6

Q70. A malnourished 60-year-old man underwent emergency surgery for strangulated sigmoid volvulus. After resection of the sigmoid colon, a colostomy was fashioned. The postoperative period was stormy, and he developed a painful calf swelling in the right lower limb. The most probable diagnosis is:

1. Hypoproteinemia
2. Edema of renal failure
3. Myocardial failure due to fluid overload
4. Deep vein thrombosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 242

Respiratory System · 2020 P2 Q7

Q71. A 50-year-old lady underwent uneventful bariatric surgery for morbid obesity. On the third postoperative day, she develops breathlessness, and pulmonary embolism is suspected. The next investigation to confirm the diagnosis will be:

1. Echocardiography
2. Duplex venography
3. CT pulmonary angiography
4. MR angiography

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 41

Respiratory System · 2021 P2 Q5

Q72. A 60-year-old lady underwent total abdominal hysterectomy. On the 3rd post-operative day, she suddenly became breathless while returning from the washroom. Her blood pressure recorded was 80/50 mm of Hg. The most probable diagnosis is

1. Postural hypotension
2. Secondary haemorrhage
3. Thromboembolism
4. Transient ischemic attack

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 108

Respiratory System · 2024 P1 Q8

Q73. Consider the following statements with regard to pulmonary embolism: 1. Unexplained breathlessness is the most common symptom. 2. When congestive heart failure or pneumonia fail to improve despite standard medical treatment, occult pulmonary embolism should be considered. 3. Patients with high clinical likelihood of venous thromboembolism should first undergo D-dimer testing alone without obligatory imaging tests. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 279

Respiratory System · 2020 P1 Q96

Q74. All of the following predispose to Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome EXCEPT:

1. Acute Pancreatitis
2. Toxic gas inhalation
3. Aspiration of gastric contents
4. Severe Bronchial asthma

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 31

Respiratory System · 2024 P1 Q94

Q75. Consider the following statements regarding acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS): 1. Exudative phase lasts from day 7 to day 21 after exposure to a precipitating risk factor. 2. Proliferative phase is characterized by proliferation of type II pneumocytes. 3. Low tidal volume ventilation (6 mL/kg body weight) has significantly lower mortality compared to high tidal volume ventilation (12 mL/kg body weight). 4. PaO2/FiO2 ≤ 100 mm Hg is classified as severe ARDS. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 308

Respiratory System · 2025 P1 Q11

Q76. Which of the following conditions are contraindications for noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation in patients with respiratory failure? I. Craniofacial abnormalities II. Significant burns III. Respiratory failure with PaCO2 of 60 mm Hg IV. Cardiovascular instability Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 372

Wernicke encephalopathy · 2022 P2 Q59

Q77. In hyperemesis gravidarum, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is seen due to the deficiency of:

1. vitamin B6
2. vitamin B1
3. vitamin B12
4. vitamin B4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 192

Wernicke encephalopathy · 2024 P1 Q87

Q78. Consider the following statements regarding Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome: 1. It is a rare complication of chronic alcohol misuse characterized by ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and delirium. 2. There is damage to the mammillary bodies and dorsomedial nuclei of thalamus. 3. The underlying cause is deficiency of Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin). 4. The syndrome can also arise due to malabsorption or protracted vomiting. Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 305

Wernicke encephalopathy · 2025 P2 Q115

Q79. Consider the following statements regarding Wernicke’s encephalopathy: I. It is caused by niacin deficiency. II. It is often seen in alcoholics. III. Ophthalmoplegia, polyneuritis and ataxia are some of its characteristic features. IV. It occurs occasionally in people who fast. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. I, II and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 468

Wilson s Disease · 2025 P1 Q46

Q80. Wilson’s disease has which of the following inheritance

1. X-linked recessive
2. Autosomal dominant
3. Autosomal recessive
4. It is an acquired disease

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 386  ·  Rapid Revision — page 257

Wilson s Disease · 2025 P1 Q96

Q81. A 32 year old man presents with history of recurrent jaundice over the previous decade. Family gives history of the patient having episodes of facial grimacing. Which one of the following is a clinical clue to the diagnosis ?

1. Adenoma sebaceum in the mid face
2. Erythema nodosum on the skin
3. Kayser-Fleischer rings in the cornea
4. Osler’s nodes at the finger tips

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 405  ·  Rapid Revision — page 257

Diabetes Mellitus · 2020 P1 Q59

Q82. Which one of the following is NOT a criterion for the diagnosis of Diabetes mellitus?

1. Symptoms of diabetes and random plasma sugar concentration ≥ 200 mg/dL
2. HbA1c ≥ 6.5%
3. 2-hours plasma glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL during an oral glucose tolerance test
4. Fasting plasma glucose ≥ 110 mg/dL

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 22

Diabetes Mellitus · 2023 P1 Q44

Q83. A 45-year-old male presented with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia for the last 3 months. His fasting plasma glucose is 106 mg/dL and random blood glucose is 220 mg/dL. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding his diagnosis?

1. He has impaired glucose tolerance (IGT)
2. He has a definitive diagnosis of diabetes mellitus
3. He does not have diabetes mellitus
4. Diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is indeterminate as HbA1c value is not provided

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 216

Diabetes Mellitus · 2022 P1 Q77

Q84. Which of the following statements with regard to gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) are correct? 1. Most women revert to normal glucose tolerance post-partum 2. Children born to a GDM mother have no increased risk of diabetes mellitus later in life 3. Glucose intolerance develops during the second and third trimesters 4. Insulin resistance is related to metabolic changes of pregnancy Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 161

Diabetes Mellitus · 2022 P2 Q82

Q85. Which of the following will be target population for screening of diabetes? 1. Women who have had a baby weighing more than 4.5 kg 2. People over 40 years of age 3. People with family history of diabetes Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 198

Diabetes Mellitus · 2021 P2 Q104

Q86. Insulin Resistance Syndrome (Syndrome X) is associated with which of the following? 1. Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus 2. Hyperinsulinemia 3. Dyslipidemia 4. Hypercalcemia Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 136

Diabetes Mellitus · 2022 P1 Q43

Q87. A 15-year-old girl presents to the hospital with severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and cold extremities. She has tachycardia and hypotension. Lab investigations show blood glucose 400 mg/dL, blood pH 6.9, urine ketones +++ and serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL. She is promptly administered IV fluids and insulin. After 4 hours, she complains of an inability to lift her limbs. What is the next step to be considered in her management?

1. Intravenous normal saline
2. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
3. Urine sample for ketones
4. Potassium repletion

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 152

Diabetes Mellitus · 2021 P1 Q61

Q88. Which one of the following oral anti-diabetic drugs acts on renal proximal tubules?

1. Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
2. GLP-1 analogue
3. DPP-4 inhibitors
4. SGLT-2 inhibitors

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 88

Diabetes Mellitus · 2022 P1 Q37

Q89. Which of the following are correct with regard to metformin? 1. The maximum tolerated dose is 2000 mg/day 2. Lactic acidosis is the major adverse effect of metformin 3. It may lower the blood levels of Vitamin B12 Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 151

Diabetes Mellitus · 2022 P1 Q39

Q90. Which one of the following drugs used to treat Diabetes mellitus, is least likely to cause hypoglycemia?

1. Insulin
2. Glimepiride
3. Sitagliptin
4. Repaglinide

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 151

Diabetes Mellitus · 2023 P1 Q45

Q91. Which one of the following statements is true regarding the use of SGLT2 inhibitor in the management of diabetes mellitus?

1. They are used in type-1, type-2, and pancreatogenic forms of diabetes mellitus
2. They cause an increase in blood pressure by 3-6 mm Hg and hence are avoided in hypertensive patients
3. Their glucose-lowering effect is dependent on insulin secretion and insulin sensitivity
4. Euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis may occur during treatment if there is a concurrent illness

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 217

Diabetes Mellitus · 2023 P1 Q50

Q92. Which of the following antidiabetic drugs may cause weight gain? 1. Glimepiride 2. Pioglitazone 3. NPH insulin 4. Sitagliptin Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 218

Diabetes Mellitus · 2023 P1 Q69

Q93. Which one of the following antidiabetic drugs is recommended for weight loss in obese patients?

1. Glimepiride
2. Liraglutide
3. Sitagliptin
4. Insulin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 225

Diabetes Mellitus · 2024 P1 Q53

Q94. Which of the following glucose lowering agent can be given as an injectable drug?

1. Pioglitazone
2. Metformin
3. Sitagliptin
4. Semaglutide

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 295

Diabetes Mellitus · 2021 P1 Q62

Q95. Which of the following are short acting insulin? 1. Aspart 2. Lispro 3. Glargine 4. Regular Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 88

Diabetes Mellitus · 2022 P1 Q42

Q96. Which of the following is a long-acting insulin?

1. Aspart
2. Glargine
3. Lispro
4. Regular

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 152

Diabetes Mellitus · 2023 P1 Q41

Q97. Which one of the following insulin preparations has the longest effective duration of action?

1. Detemir
2. Glargine
3. NPH
4. Degludec

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 216

Diabetes Mellitus · 2023 P1 Q90

Q98. Which of the following insulins has a cloudy preparation and requires resuspension prior to injection?

1. Lente
2. Glargine
3. Detemir
4. Degludec

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 231

Diabetes Mellitus · 2024 P1 Q92

Q99. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to glucose homeostasis? 1. Insulin level rises postprandially. 2. Major portion of postprandial glucose is used by skeletal muscle. 3. Brain uses glucose in an insulin-dependent manner. 4. Glucagon is secreted during exercise. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 307

Diabetes Mellitus · 2024 P1 Q48

Q100. A 52-year-old male diabetic presents with recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia. On examination, Pulse: 84 beats/minute, BP: 160/100 mm Hg, Chest and CVS examination unremarkable. Which of the following antihypertensive should be avoided in this patient?

1. Propranolol
2. Telmisartan
3. Torsemide
4. Amlodipine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 293

POISONING of the year . must know · 2020 P1 Q99

Q101. In a child with acute organophosphorus poisoning, which one of the following drugs will act as anti-sialagogue and peripheral parasympatholytic agent?

1. Carbamates
2. Atropine
3. Benzodiazepine
4. Pralidoxime

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 32  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2022 P1 Q54

Q102. A 21-year-old female was brought to the Emergency Department with a history of unknown substance ingestion. She was having vomiting, profuse diarrhea, bronchorrhea, and excessive sweating. On examination, miosis and muscular fasciculations were present. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Corrosive substance poisoning
2. Aluminum phosphide poisoning
3. Zinc phosphide poisoning
4. Organophosphorus poisoning

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 155  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2022 P1 Q55

Q103. A young female of 22 years old presented to the medical emergency with complaints of nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and convulsions along with methemoglobinemia. What is the likely diagnosis?

1. Aluminium phosphide poisoning
2. Zinc phosphide poisoning
3. Copper sulphate poisoning
4. Lead poisoning

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 156  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2022 P1 Q108

Q104. According to King’s College criteria, which of the following are the indicators for referring to liver transplantation following acetaminophen toxicity? Transaminase levels > 4000 IU/L Acidemia (Serum pH < 7.3) after adequate fluid resuscitation Coagulopathy (INR > 6) Renal dysfunction (creatinine > 3-4 mg/dL) Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 1, 2, and 4
3. 1, 3, and 4
4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 169  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2022 P1 Q114

Q105. Urinary alkalinization is used for enhancing excretion of which of the following poisoning?

1. Phenobarbitone
2. Alprazolam
3. Phenytoin
4. Lithium

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 171  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2023 P1 Q102

Q106. Urinary alkalinization as a method for enhancing excretion for poisoning is aimed at achieving

1. serum pH 7.5–8
2. urine pH 7.5–8
3. serum pH > 8
4. urine pH > 8

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 234  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2023 P1 Q103

Q107. Exchange transfusion as a method to enhance excretion of poison is indicated in

1. methemoglobinemia
2. carbamazepine poisoning
3. theophylline poisoning
4. barbiturate poisoning

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 235  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2023 P1 Q104

Q108. In case of a child with acute poisoning by ingestion, activated charcoal may be used in which one of the following situations?

1. Iron ingestion
2. Antiepileptic ingestion
3. Corrosive ingestion
4. Lithium ingestion

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 235  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2024 P1 Q96

Q109. Consider the following statements regarding paracetamol toxicity: 1. Toxicity is caused by an intermediate reactive metabolite that binds covalently to cellular proteins causing cell death. 2. Antidotes for paracetamol act by replenishing hepatic glutathione and should be administered to all patients with acute poisoning. 3. Intravenous acetyl cysteine is a highly efficacious antidote if administered within 8 hours of the overdose. 4. Methionine may be used as an alternative antidote but it is less effective than acetyl cysteine. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 309  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2024 P1 Q106

Q110. Whole Bowel Irrigation (WBI) as a method of gastrointestinal decontamination is useful for poisoning with:

1. Alcohol
2. Iron
3. Kerosene
4. Organophosphorus

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 313  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2024 P1 Q111

Q111. Poisoning with which of the following drugs causes hypothermia?

1. Digoxin
2. Chlorpromazine
3. Iron
4. Alcohol

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 315  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2024 P1 Q112

Q112. Consider the following pairs: | Urine colour | Possible causative agent (suspected poisoning) | | --- | --- | | 1. Pink | Cephalosporin | | 2. Brown | Chloroquine | | 3. Greenish blue | Phenazopyridine | | 4. Red-orange | Amitriptyline | How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 315  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2024 P1 Q113

Q113. Consider the following agents and the cardiac effects in case of overdose or poisoning: | Cardiac Effect | Agent | | --- | --- | | 1. Prolonged PR interval | Lithium | | 2. Prolonged QTc interval | Amiodarone | | 3. Wide QRS complex | Kerosene ingestion | | 4. Tachycardia | Organophosphates | How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 316  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2025 P1 Q65

Q114. Which one of the following is the correct description of Mee’s lines, seen in chronic arsenic poisoning ?

1. Transverse white lines on nails of fingers and toes
2. Transverse red lines on the skin of palms and soles
3. Transverse white lines on the skin of palms and soles
4. Transverse red lines on the nails of fingers and toes

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 394  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2025 P1 Q71

Q115. A 45 year old farmer came with accidental consumption of a pesticide. He complained of frequent urination and excessive salivation. Which one of the following toxidromes is most likely to be associated with this poisoning ?

1. Serotonergic
2. Cholinergic
3. Adrenergic
4. Hypnotic

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 396  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2025 P1 Q99

Q116. A radiopaque density may be noticed in poisoning by which of the following agents ?

1. Phenazopyridine
2. Ethylene glycol
3. Chloroquine
4. Chloral hydrate

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 406  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2020 P1 Q97

Q117. An 8 year old child has consumed a few tablets of a drug that were being taken by his mother on a regular basis. Following this the child develops gastric necrosis, acidosis, shock and hepatic necrosis. Which is the most likely drug?

1. Multivitamins
2. Calcium carbonate
3. Folic acid
4. Iron

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 32  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2021 P1 Q92

Q118. Gastric aspiration and lavage is contraindicated in which of the following poisonings? 1. Strong acids 2. Alkalis 3. Petroleum distillates 4. Ethanol Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 97  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2023 P1 Q65

Q119. Which of the following statements are correct regarding scorpion stings? Scorpion injects venom from a stinger on their tail. Most stings are painful, but relatively harmless. Anticholinergics can be used if antivenom is unavailable. Select the correct answer using the code below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 224  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2023 P1 Q78

Q120. Consider the following statements about elapid snakebite: Regardless of the anatomic site of the bite, walking of the victim should be discouraged. Pressure immobilization should be used, wherever possible. Ptosis can be present after the elapid bite. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 227  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2024 P1 Q95

Q121. Consider the following statements regarding organophosphate-induced delayed polyneuropathy (OPIDN): 1. It is a rare complication and occurs 2–3 weeks after acute exposure. 2. It is a feature of poisoning with certain organophosphorus compounds such as triorthocresyl phosphate. 3. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase causes motor polyneuropathy with no evidence of sensory loss. 4. There is no specific therapy although regular physiotherapy may limit deformity caused by muscle wasting. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 309  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2025 P1 Q70

Q122. Which one of the following prevents gastrointestinal absorption of thallium ?

1. Calcium carbonate
2. Prussian blue
3. Penicillamine
4. Potassium permanganate

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 396  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2021 P1 Q91

Q123. Early hypotension in venomous snakebite is due to which of the following?

1. Pooling of blood in the pulmonary and splanchnic circulation
2. Systemic bleeding
3. Hemolysis
4. Loss of intravascular volume into the soft tissues

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 96  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

POISONING of the year . must know · 2024 P1 Q90

Q124. Which of the following are correct regarding acetaminophen? 1. It does not interfere with platelet function. 2. It is toxic to the liver in high doses. 3. It is a non-narcotic analgesic. Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 306  ·  Rapid Revision — page 264

Antidote · 2020 P1 Q110

Q125. Which one of the following drugs is the antidote for benzodiazepine poisoning?

1. Flumazenil
2. Atropine
3. Naloxone
4. Pralidoxime aldoxime methiodide

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 35  ·  Rapid Revision — page 265

Antidote · 2021 P1 Q93

Q126. Acetylcysteine is an antidote for which poisoning?

1. Salicylates
2. Paracetamol
3. Tricyclic antidepressants
4. Benzodiazepines

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 97  ·  Rapid Revision — page 265

Antidote · 2022 P1 Q116

Q127. Antidote to reverse the muscarinic effects of organophosphate toxicity is

1. Pralidoxime aldoxime methiodide (PAM)
2. Atropine
3. Adrenaline
4. N-acetylcysteine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 171  ·  Rapid Revision — page 265

Antidote · 2023 P1 Q27

Q128. Which one of the following drugs helps to maintain abstinence by reducing craving for alcohol?

1. Apomorphine
2. Acamprosate
3. Atropine
4. Azathioprine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 214  ·  Rapid Revision — page 265

Antidote · 2025 P1 Q66

Q129. Fomepizole is an antidote used to treat poisoning from which of the following substances ? I. Methanol II. Digoxin III. Cocaine IV. Ethylene glycol Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. III and IV
4. I and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 394  ·  Rapid Revision — page 265

Antidote · 2025 P1 Q69

Q130. What is the antidote for belladonna poisoning ?

1. Physostigmine
2. Amitriptyline
3. Atropine
4. Flumazenil

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 396  ·  Rapid Revision — page 265

Antidote · 2025 P1 Q89

Q131. Which one of the following is an antidote for Rivaroxaban and Apixaban, when reversal of anticoagulation is needed due to uncontrolled bleeding ?

1. Idarucizumab
2. Andexanet Alfa
3. Hydroxocobalamin
4. Glucarpidase

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 403  ·  Rapid Revision — page 265

Antidote · 2025 P1 Q91

Q132. Which one of the following is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of Dabigatran ?

1. Glucarpidase
2. Deferoxamine
3. Idarucizumab
4. Protamine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 403  ·  Rapid Revision — page 265

100 % you will get Question from here · 2021 P1 Q55

Q133. Which one of the following drugs causes direct X-a inhibition?

1. Tirofiban
2. Apixaban
3. Dabigatran
4. Prasugrel

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 86  ·  Rapid Revision — page 267

100 % you will get Question from here · 2022 P1 Q36

Q134. Which one of the following is an oral direct Thrombin inhibitor?

1. Apixaban
2. Rivaroxaban
3. Dabigatran
4. Argatroban

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 151  ·  Rapid Revision — page 267

100 % you will get Question from here · 2024 P1 Q44

Q135. Which of the following is an oral anticoagulant?

1. Dabigatran
2. Heparin
3. Fondaparinux
4. Bivalirudin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 292  ·  Rapid Revision — page 267

100 % you will get Question from here · 2022 P1 Q4

Q136. Which of the following anticoagulant agents can be administered by the oral route? 1. Rivaroxaban 2. Fondaparinux 3. Apixaban 4. Dabigatran Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 142  ·  Rapid Revision — page 267

100 % you will get Question from here · 2022 P1 Q71

Q137. Which of the following can be used in the initial management of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia? 1. Fondaparinux 2. Rivaroxaban 3. Lepirudin 4. Warfarin Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 160  ·  Rapid Revision — page 267

100 % you will get Question from here · 2025 P1 Q89

Q138. Which one of the following is an antidote for Rivaroxaban and Apixaban, when reversal of anticoagulation is needed due to uncontrolled bleeding?

1. Idarucizumab
2. Andexanet Alfa
3. Hydroxocobalamin
4. Glucarpidase

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 403  ·  Rapid Revision — page 267

100 % you will get Question from here · 2025 P1 Q91

Q139. Which one of the following is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of Dabigatran?

1. Glucarpidase
2. Deferoxamine
3. Idarucizumab
4. Protamine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 403  ·  Rapid Revision — page 267

Pleural effusion-Light s criteria · 2020 P1 Q20

Q140. All of the following are causes of exudative Pleural Effusion, EXCEPT:

1. SVC obstruction
2. Fungal infection
3. SLE
4. Meig syndrome

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 12  ·  Rapid Revision — page 269

Pleural effusion-Light s criteria · 2022 P1 Q12

Q141. Low pleural fluid glucose (< 60 mg%) may be observed in which of the following? 1.Pyogenic pleural effusion 2.Rheumatoid pleuritis 3.Malignant pleural effusion 4.Hepatic hydrothorax Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 3, and 4
4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 144  ·  Rapid Revision — page 269

Pleural effusion-Light s criteria · 2024 P1 Q9

Q142. Consider the following criteria : 1. Pleural fluid protein : Serum protein ratio > 0.5 2. Pleural fluid LDH : Serum LDH ratio > 0.6 3. Pleural fluid LDH > Two-thirds of the upper limit of normal serum LDH Which of the above criteria, if present in pleural fluid, will indicate an exudate?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 280  ·  Rapid Revision — page 269

Pleural effusion-Light s criteria · 2025 P1 Q13

Q143. Consider the following pleural fluid analysis : pH – 7·6 Pleural fluid protein – 0·5 g/dL Serum total protein – 6·5 g/dL Pleural fluid LDH – 100 U/L Serum LDH – 300 U/L What is the most likely diagnosis ?

1. Pancreatitis
2. Myxoedema
3. Sarcoidosis
4. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 374  ·  Rapid Revision — page 269

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2020 P1 Q4

Q144. All of the following are indications for treadmill testing / exercise-testing EXCEPT:

1. To confirm the diagnosis of angina
2. To evaluate stable angina
3. To assess outcome after coronary revascularization
4. To evaluate the treatment efficacy of antianginal drugs

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 8

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2021 P1 Q1

Q145. A 60-year-old man comes to emergency with history of chest pain, which is acute onset. The ECG shows ST depression and T waves inversion. Cardiac biomarkers in blood are not elevated. What will be the appropriate management?

1. Oxygen + Aspirin + Ticagrelor + Metoprolol
2. Oxygen + Sublingual Nitroglycerin + Antiplatelets + Streptokinase
3. Antiplatelets + LMW Heparin subcutaneous
4. Oxygen + Sublingual Nitroglycerin + Digoxin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 70

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2021 P1 Q5

Q146. A 50-year-old man reports to Emergency with breathlessness, palpitations and acute chest pain. On auscultation, there is systolic murmur at apex and ECG shows ST elevations in anterior chest leads. Which one of the following would be the next choice of investigation?

1. Cardiac marker troponin T/I
2. Echocardiography
3. TMT
4. 24-hour Holter monitoring

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 72

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2023 P1 Q68

Q147. A 60-year-old diabetic female presents with acute myocardial infarction. ECG changes include ST elevation greater than 1 mm in lead aVR. The likely localization of thrombosis is in

1. Right Coronary Artery
2. Distal LAD
3. Left Circumflex Artery
4. Left Main or Proximal LAD

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 225

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2025 P1 Q2

Q148. Consider the following statements for diagnosing ventricular aneurysm in a patient with recent myocardial infarction: I. Paradoxical impulse on chest wall II. Persistent ST elevation on ECG III. Unusual bulge from cardiac silhouette on X-ray IV. Presence of pulsus paradoxus Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I and II only
2. I and IV
3. I, II and III
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 366

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2024 P1 Q2

Q149. The SA node is situated at the junction of:

1. SVC and RA
2. SVC and LA
3. LA and LV
4. IVC and RA

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 277

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2024 P1 Q3

Q150. High output cardiac failure is caused by which of the following diseases? 1. Beri-Beri 2. Severe anaemia 3. Thyrotoxicosis Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 277

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2022 P1 Q8

Q151. Left atrial dilatation on X-ray chest is characterized by which of the following? 1. Straight left heart border 2. Rounding of left heart border 3. Double cardiac shadow 4. Widening of the angle of carina Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 143

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2023 P1 Q10

Q152. A 28-year male is suspected of having hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM). Which of the following statements are likely to be true on his examination? 1. Maneuvers that decrease LV preload will cause the murmur to intensify. 2. Maneuvers that decrease LV afterload will cause decrease in intensity of murmur. 3. Murmur of HOCM becomes softer with passive leg raising. 4. Murmur of HOCM becomes louder with squatting. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 3
3. 2 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 209

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2023 P1 Q1

Q153. Thickened ventricular wall with normal diastolic function is a feature of

1. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
2. restrictive cardiomyopathy
3. endomyocardial fibrosis
4. athlete’s heart

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 208

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2020 P1 Q3

Q154. A 40-year-old lady comes to outdoor clinic with complaints of sudden onset chest pain. The chest X-ray shows bilateral pneumothorax. Examination reveals long arms, legs and fingers (arachnodactyly), scoliosis, high arched palate, joint hypermobility, and a pansystolic murmur at cardiac apex. Which one of the following diseases is most likely?

1. Takayasu’s arteritis
2. Raynaud’s syndrome
3. Marfan’s syndrome
4. Rheumatic heart disease – Mitral regurgitation

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 8

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2020 P1 Q5

Q155. Kussmaul’s sign is present in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

1. Massive Pulmonary Embolism
2. Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
3. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
4. Right Ventricular Infarction

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 8

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2022 P1 Q9

Q156. A 30-year-old male is being evaluated for shortness of breath. On examination of the jugular venous pulse (JVP), there is a rise in the JVP on inspiration. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Constrictive pericarditis
2. Atrial septal defect
3. Aortic regurgitation
4. Severe mitral stenosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 143

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2023 P1 Q3

Q157. A patient with peripheral edema has the following findings: a soft systolic murmur at the lower left sternal border with raised JVP showing prominent C-V wave. The murmur increases in intensity on deep inspiration. The most likely valvular abnormality is

1. ventricular septal defect
2. mitral regurgitation
3. tricuspid regurgitation
4. mitral valve prolapse

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 208

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2023 P1 Q4

Q158. Kussmaul’s sign is a clinical feature of

1. Constrictive pericarditis
2. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
3. Anteroseptal myocardial infarction
4. Dilated cardiomyopathy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 208

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2024 P1 Q1

Q159. The height of the Jugular Venous Pulse is determined by:

1. Right atrial pressure
2. Right ventricle pressure
3. Left atrial pressure
4. Left ventricle pressure

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 276

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2022 P1 Q10

Q160. A 24-year-old man presents with acute onset shortness of breath with precordial chest pain. ECG reveals ST elevation with upward concavity and PR segment depression in lead V2 to V6 and reciprocal changes in lead aVR. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. Anterior wall myocardial infarction
2. Acute pericarditis
3. Anterior wall aneurysm
4. Aortic dissection

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 144

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2023 P1 Q71

Q161. Which of the following are typical physical findings in pericardial effusion? 1. Raised JVP 2. Hypotension 3. Oliguria 4. Water hammer pulse Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 226

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2022 P1 Q6

Q162. Which of the following produce loud S1 on cardiac auscultation? 1. Anemia 2. Pregnancy 3. Thyrotoxicosis 4. Mitral regurgitation Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 143

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2023 P1 Q2

Q163. In which of the following cases does paradoxical splitting occur? 1. Severe aortic stenosis 2. Right bundle branch block 3. Right ventricular pacing 4. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 208

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2024 P1 Q4

Q164. Reverse splitting of second heart sound is most commonly seen in:

1. ASD
2. Severe MR
3. LBBB
4. Pulmonary hypertension

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 277

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2025 P1 Q1

Q165. Which of the following heart sounds are best heard with the bell of stethoscope? I. Opening snap II. Systolic click III. Third heart sound IV. Mid diastolic murmur Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I and IV
2. II and III only
3. III and IV
4. I, II and III

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 366

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2023 P1 Q72

Q166. Which of the following conditions can produce a third heart sound (S3) on auscultation? 1. Young age 2. Pregnancy 3. Left ventricular failure 4. Mitral stenosis Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 226

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2021 P1 Q9

Q167. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Opening Snap in cardiac auscultation?

1. It is a high pitched diastolic sound
2. It is due to opening of stenosed aortic valve
3. It indicates pulmonary arterial hypertension
4. It precedes the aortic component of second heart sound

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 73

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2025 P1 Q5

Q168. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Opening Snap (OS) in a patient of mitral stenosis?

1. OS is best heard with the bell of stethoscope
2. Intensity of OS becomes louder when the valve is calcified
3. OS moves closer to the second sound (S2) as the stenosis becomes more severe
4. OS is best heard at the second left intercostal space

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 369

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2023 P1 Q5

Q169. A patient has a cardiac murmur that is best heard at the right second intercostal space. It increases with expiration. Also, the murmur reduces in intensity during sustained handgrip but increases in intensity on inhalation of amyl nitrite. The likely lesion is

1. ventricular septal defect
2. aortic stenosis
3. hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
4. mitral regurgitation

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 208

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2024 P1 Q6

Q170. A 70-year-old man with dyspnoea on exertion has been found to have a single second heart sound and a loud diamond-shaped, rough quality systolic murmur best heard at the right 2nd intercostal space, radiating to the right carotid artery. Which one of the following is the likely diagnosis?

1. Patent ductus arteriosus
2. Ventricular septal defect
3. Aortic stenosis
4. Pulmonary stenosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 278

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2025 P1 Q4

Q171. Which one of the following is correct with regard to Carey Coombs murmur?

1. Soft systolic murmur due to mitral regurgitation
2. Soft mid-diastolic murmur due to mitral valvulitis
3. Harsh early diastolic murmur due to aortic regurgitation
4. Blowing late systolic murmur due to aortic stenosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 368

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2025 P1 Q79

Q172. The murmur of mitral regurgitation is best heard at

1. Tricuspid area
2. Aortic area
3. Cardiac apex
4. Pulmonary area

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 399

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2023 P1 Q6

Q173. In the modified Duke criteria for infective endocarditis, which one of the following is not a major criterion?

1. New partial dehiscence of prosthetic valve
2. Positive blood culture
3. Roth’s spots
4. New valvular regurgitation

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 209

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2023 P1 Q12

Q174. Which one of the following is a manifestation of vascular phenomenon in modified Duke criteria?

1. Osler’s node
2. Roth’s spots
3. Janeway’s lesions
4. Glomerulonephritis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 210

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2021 P1 Q90

Q175. Cardiac outflow tract defect, thymic hypoplasia, cleft palate and hypocalcemia are clinical features of which gene disorder?

1. Angelman syndrome
2. Williams syndrome
3. Smith-Magenis syndrome
4. DiGeorge syndrome

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 96

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2020 P1 Q7

Q176. In an ECG recording, P wave is produced by:

1. Atrial depolarisation
2. Atrial repolarisation
3. Ventricular depolarisation
4. Ventricular repolarisation

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 9

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2021 P1 Q3

Q177. Which one of the following is not a differential diagnosis of ST segment elevation in ECG?

1. Acute pericarditis
2. Trauma to ventricles
3. Hypothermia
4. Hypocalcemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 72

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2023 P1 Q8

Q178. Osborn waves in ECG show prolonged repolarization with a distinctive convex elevation of the ‘J’ point. These waves are associated with

1. systemic hypothermia
2. acute pericarditis
3. acute myocarditis
4. Brugada syndrome

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 209

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2023 P1 Q73

Q179. Which of the following statements are true about the PR interval? 1. It denotes atrial depolarization. 2. Normal duration is 0.12 seconds to 0.20 seconds. 3. Prolongation denotes impaired AV nodal conduction. 4. A short PR interval occurs in WPW syndrome. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 226

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2020 P1 Q1

Q180. A chronic alcoholic develops a paroxysm of palpitations after alcohol binge. Which of the following arrhythmias is most likely?

1. Ventricular fibrillation
2. Ventricular premature complex
3. Atrial flutter
4. Atrial fibrillation

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 8

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2020 P1 Q6

Q181. Which one of the following is NOT a common cause of atrial fibrillation?

1. Mitral regurgitation
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Hypertension
4. Acute myocardial infarction

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 8

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2020 P1 Q8

Q182. Which one of the following modalities is NOT used in the treatment of ventricular tachycardia?

1. DC Cardioversion
2. Injection Lignocaine
3. Injection Amiodarone
4. Injection Adenosine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 9

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2021 P1 Q4

Q183. Which one of the following is a non-shockable rhythm in respect to use of AED (Automatic External Defibrillator)?

1. Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia
2. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
3. Ventricular fibrillation
4. Pulseless electrical activity

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 72

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2021 P1 Q8

Q184. A 35-year-old patient presents in the Emergency with sudden onset palpitations. His heart rate is 150/minute and gets reverted after carotid massage. The most probable diagnosis is:

1. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
2. Ventricular tachycardia
3. Ventricular fibrillation
4. Atrial flutter with block

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 73

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2021 P1 Q6

Q185. Which of the following electro-cardiographic findings are manifestations of digitalis intoxication? 1. Ventricular bigeminy 2. Ventricular tachycardia 3. Atrial flutter 4. Atrial tachycardia with variable block Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 72

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2025 P1 Q6

Q186. Which one of the following responses to intravenous adenosine is correctly matched?

1. Atrial fibrillation – Termination
2. Atrio-ventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia – Termination
3. Ventricular tachycardia – Termination and complete recovery
4. Atrial flutter – Termination and complete recovery

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 369

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2022 P1 Q2

Q187. A patient with ischemic heart disease on regular follow-up has a resting heart rate of 90 beats/minute. The patient is taking metoprolol 50 mg twice a day. Which one of the following drugs may be added to his prescription if he also has signs of heart failure?

1. Ranolazine
2. Diclofenac
3. Prednisolone
4. Ivabradine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 142

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2020 P1 Q2

Q188. Elderly man with history of Diabetes mellitus and coronary artery disease comes for follow-up, with complaints of muscle pains. Which one of the following drugs could be the most likely cause?

1. Aspirin
2. Glimepiride
3. Enalapril
4. Atorvastatin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 8

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2022 P1 Q1

Q189. A 52-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease is on sublingual nitroglycerin SOS, metoprolol, aspirin and enalapril for the last year. He now complains of breathlessness and wheeze. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be implicated for this new symptom?

1. Enalapril
2. Metoprolol
3. Nitroglycerin
4. Aspirin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 141

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2021 P1 Q11

Q190. A patient with Atrial Fibrillation on regular treatment presents with photosensitivity, skin discoloration and peripheral neuropathy. Which drug may be implicated?

1. Digoxin
2. Disopyramide
3. Amiodarone
4. Bisoprolol

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 74

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2022 P1 Q7

Q191. Which of the following are correct about Ivabradine? 1. It may be of use in severe heart failure 2. It acts on SA node 3. It reduces heart rate 4. It is effective in atrial fibrillation Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 143

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2022 P1 Q5

Q192. Which of the following drugs may be associated with leg swelling? 1. Calcium channel blockers 2. NSAIDs 3. Glucocorticoids 4. Mineralocorticoids Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 143

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2020 P1 Q9

Q193. Which one of the following drugs is a Direct Renin Inhibitor?

1. Benedipine
2. Azilsartan
3. Aliskiren
4. Lisinopril

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 9

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2020 P1 Q10

Q194. All of the following are causes of systolic hypertension with wide pulse pressure EXCEPT:

1. Aortic regurgitation
2. Thyrotoxicosis
3. Patent ductus arteriosus
4. Aortic stenosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 9

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2020 P2 Q82

Q195. Which of the following measures can help reduce the risk of systemic hypertension? 1. Reduction in dietary intake of common salt 2. Controlling weight for age 3. Increasing potassium rich foods in the diet Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 59

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2020 P2 Q114

Q196. DASH diet plan is advocated in the control of which one of the following diseases?

1. Cancer
2. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
3. Hypertension
4. Rheumatic heart disease

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 66

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2021 P2 Q105

Q197. The “DASH diet” is a lifestyle modification for management of which of these conditions?

1. Cancer
2. Diabetes
3. Anemia
4. Hypertension

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 136

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2024 P1 Q99

Q198. In case of hypertensive emergency in a child, blood pressure should be reduced by up to:

1. 10% over the first 8 hours
2. 15% over the first 8 hours
3. 10% in the first hour
4. 15% in the first hour

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 310

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2021 P2 Q104

Q199. Insulin Resistance Syndrome (Syndrome X) is associated with which of the following? 1. Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus 2. Hyperinsulinemia 3. Dyslipidemia 4. Hypercalcemia Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 136

Cardiovascular System (CVS) · 2022 P1 Q3

Q200. An 18-year-old boy got frostbite on his left foot after working in a snowy field for 5–6 hours. He complained of pain, numbness, and limited movement of his toes. The skin appeared white and waxy. Which one of the following is contraindicated as initial treatment?

1. Rewarming by immersion of feet in a water bath at 40–44°C
2. Massage
3. Cleaning of the injured area with soap
4. Use of analgesia and sterile dressing

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 142

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2020 P1 Q39

Q201. Drug choice for the treatment of Trigeminal Neuralgia is:

1. Carbamazepine
2. Aceclofenac
3. Thiamine
4. Prednisolone

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 16

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2020 P1 Q101

Q202. Which one of the following is the drug of choice in a child presenting with supraventricular tachycardia?

1. Atropine
2. Lidocaine
3. Adenosine
4. Naloxone

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 33

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2020 P1 Q102

Q203. Which one of the following drugs is used in cardiopulmonary resuscitation for pulseless ventricular fibrillation?

1. Atropine
2. Adenosine
3. Lidocaine
4. Amiodarone

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 33

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2025 P1 Q115

Q204. Which one of the following oral drugs may be used in the management of super-refractory status epilepticus?

1. Clonazepam
2. Clobazam
3. Lamotrigine
4. Topiramate

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 412

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2025 P1 Q116

Q205. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the use of benzodiazepines in the initial management of status epilepticus? I. Up to two doses may be used 5 minutes apart, if seizures are not controlled II. For Lorazepam, only a single dose should be used, even if seizures are not controlled III. Dose of midazolam at this stage is 1–15 μg/kg/min infusion IV. Dose of both lorazepam and midazolam is 0.1 mg/kg Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I and III
2. I and IV
3. II and III
4. II and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 413

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2025 P2 Q52

Q206. Detection of magnesium toxicity in a patient receiving magnesium sulphate is noticed by which of the following? I. Loss of tendon reflexes II. Increased respiratory rate III. Chest pain, heart block IV. Cardiac arrest Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, III and IV
2. II and IV only
3. I and III only
4. III and IV only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 441

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2025 P2 Q115

Q207. Consider the following statements regarding Wernicke’s encephalopathy: I. It is caused by niacin deficiency. II. It is often seen in alcoholics. III. Ophthalmoplegia, polyneuritis and ataxia are some of its characteristic features. IV. It occurs occasionally in people who fast. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. II, III and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. I, II and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 468

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2020 P1 Q2

Q208. Elderly man with history of Diabetes mellitus and coronary artery disease comes for follow-up, with complaints of muscle pains. Which one of the following drugs could be the most likely cause?

1. Aspirin
2. Glimepiride
3. Enalapril
4. Atorvastatin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 8

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2021 P1 Q11

Q209. A patient with Atrial Fibrillation on regular treatment presents with photosensitivity, skin discoloration and peripheral neuropathy. Which drug may be implicated?

1. Digoxin
2. Disopyramide
3. Amiodarone
4. Bisoprolol

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 74

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2021 P1 Q53

Q210. Which type of anemia can be caused by the drug Dapsone?

1. Iron deficiency anemia
2. Sideroblastic anemia
3. Spur cell anemia
4. Hemolytic anemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 85

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2023 P1 Q86

Q211. Which one of the following drugs is associated with calciphylaxis in chronic kidney disease patients?

1. Calcium channel blocker
2. Warfarin
3. Non-calcium-based phosphate binder
4. Thiazide diuretic

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 230

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2024 P1 Q51

Q212. With regard to treatment of thyrotoxicosis of Grave’s disease, consider the following statements: 1. Propylthiouracil is suitable in breastfeeding patients. 2. Large goitre is an indication for thyroidectomy. 3. Radioiodine is recommended for management in pregnancy. 4. Agranulocytosis is a complication associated with carbimazole. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 294

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2024 P1 Q77

Q213. A patient developed difficulty in standing from a seated position, walking up steps, squatting and lifting arms overhead. Chronic therapy with which of the following drugs is likely to result in such presentation?

1. Acetaminophen
2. Fexofenadine
3. Glucocorticoids
4. Metformin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 303

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2024 P1 Q78

Q214. Hemorrhagic cystitis is a serious side effect of:

1. Leflunomide
2. Mycophenolate mofetil
3. Cyclophosphamide
4. Methotrexate

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 303

Drug of Choice & Side Effects of Drugs · 2024 P1 Q111

Q215. Poisoning with which of the following drugs causes hypothermia?

1. Digoxin
2. Chlorpromazine
3. Iron
4. Alcohol

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 315

Renal System · 2024 P1 Q29

Q216. Which of the following is the correct range of Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) for Stage 2 chronic kidney disease?

1. 60 – 89 mL/min/1.73 m²
2. 45 – 59 mL/min/1.73 m²
3. 30 – 44 mL/min/1.73 m²
4. 15 – 29 mL/min/1.73 m²

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 288

Renal System · 2025 P1 Q29

Q217. Kidney damage and Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) value between 15–29 mL/min/1.73 m² are found in which stage of Chronic Kidney Disease?

1. Stage 2 (mild)
2. Stage 3A (mild to moderate)
3. Stage 4 (severe)
4. Stage 5 (kidney failure)

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 379

Renal System · 2021 P1 Q35

Q218. The leading cause of Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) globally is:

1. Diabetic nephropathy
2. Glomerulonephritis
3. Hypertension-associated CKD
4. Polycystic kidney disease

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 79

Renal System · 2022 P1 Q64

Q219. Most common cause of Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD):

1. Hypertension-associated CKD
2. Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
3. Diabetic nephropathy
4. Glomerulonephritis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 158

Renal System · 2021 P1 Q34

Q220. Which of the following are the mechanisms for anemia in Chronic Kidney Disease? 1. Deficiency of erythropoietin 2. Folate and Vitamin B12 deficiency 3. Toxic effects of uremia on bone marrow 4. Reduced utilization of dietary iron Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 79

Renal System · 2020 P1 Q31

Q221. What is the target blood Hemoglobin level when treating anemia in Stage-4 chronic kidney disease patient?

1. 8 to 10 gm/dL
2. 10 to 12 gm/dL
3. 12 to 13 gm/dL
4. 13 to 14 gm/dL

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 14

Renal System · 2020 P1 Q32

Q222. Which one of the following complications of chronic kidney disease is observed in patients with low parathyroid hormone levels?

1. Adynamic bone disease
2. Tumoral calcinosis
3. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
4. Calciphylaxis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 14

Renal System · 2025 P1 Q27

Q223. A 52-year-old male has uncontrolled diabetes. Which one of the following tests will help in early detection of nephropathy?

1. Blood urea level
2. Serum creatinine level
3. Ultrasonography
4. Urine albumin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 379

Renal System · 2022 P1 Q67

Q224. Which of the following are consequences of nephrotic syndrome? 1. Increased lipoprotein synthesis 2. Low serum globulin levels 3. Increased serum aldosterone levels 4. Increased serum Antithrombin III levels Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 159

Renal System · 2020 P1 Q25

Q225. All of the following conditions are associated with Glomerulonephritis with low complement level, EXCEPT:

1. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
2. IgA nephropathy
3. Systemic lupus erythematosus
4. Cryoglobulinemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 13

Renal System · 2024 P1 Q32

Q226. A 40-year-old female with nephritic range proteinuria is found to have low serum complement levels. Which of the following can be the likely etiology? 1. Systemic lupus erythematosus 2. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis 3. Infective endocarditis 4. Mesangio-capillary glomerulonephritis Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 288

Renal System · 2020 P1 Q36

Q227. A 13-year-old boy presents with hematuria, oliguria, edema and hypertension. He has history of sore throat two weeks prior to presentation. Investigations show low C3 and increased titers of ASO and antiDNase. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about management for this condition?

1. Renal biopsy is rarely required for making diagnosis
2. Antibiotic treatment is given for streptococcal infection
3. Treatment is largely supportive
4. Immunosuppressants are to be used for crescentic glomerulonephritis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 15

Renal System · 2024 P1 Q28

Q228. Which of the following are indications for a renal biopsy? 1. Chronic kidney disease of uncertain etiology 2. Nephritic syndrome 3. Uncontrolled severe hypertension 4. Renal transplant dysfunction Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 287

Renal System · 2025 P1 Q26

Q229. Which one of the following conditions is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the sodium-potassium-2-chloride cotransporter (NKCC2), and presents with sodium wasting, hypokalemia, hypomagnesaemia and hypercalciuria?

1. Alport syndrome
2. Bartter syndrome
3. Fanconi syndrome
4. Gitelman syndrome

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 378

Renal System · 2024 P1 Q26

Q230. Which of the following statements are correct regarding anti-glomerular basement membrane disease? 1. It is a rare autoimmune disease which presents as rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. 2. Antibodies are formed against α3 chain of type 4 collagen of GBM. 3. The α3 chain is expressed in basement membrane of glomerulus and the retina. 4. The disease may be associated with retinal hemorrhage when it is known as Goodpasture syndrome. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 287

Renal System · 2021 P1 Q83

Q231. Polyarteritis nodosa has peak incidence between the ages of:

1. 10–20 years
2. 20–30 years
3. 30–40 years
4. 40–50 years

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 94

Renal System · 2023 P1 Q22

Q232. Which of the following are recommended for management of tumour lysis syndrome? 1. Urinary alkalinization 2. Intravenous fluids 3. Rasburicase 4. Febuxostat Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 212

Rheumatology, Vasculitis & Connective Tissue · 2024 P1 Q11

Q233. Consider the following statements regarding Lofgren syndrome: 1. It is an acute illness and is more commonly seen in females. 2. It is a clinically distinct phenotype of sarcoidosis characterized by peripheral arthropathy and uveitis. 3. Clinical features include fever, erythema nodosum and bilateral lymphadenopathy. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 280

Rheumatology, Vasculitis & Connective Tissue · 2023 P1 Q7

Q234. Which one of the following diseases affects predominantly large arteries?

1. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
2. Polyarteritis nodosa
3. Giant cell arteritis
4. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 209

Rheumatology, Vasculitis & Connective Tissue · 2024 P1 Q41

Q235. A 75-year-old man presented with temporal headache, jaw pain, exacerbated by chewing and talking. Which one of the following investigations will most likely help in diagnosis?

1. Temporal artery biopsy
2. Electromyography
3. MRI of the brain
4. Carotid colour Doppler

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 291

Rheumatology, Vasculitis & Connective Tissue · 2021 P1 Q83

Q236. Polyarteritis nodosa has peak incidence between the ages of:

1. 10–20 years
2. 20–30 years
3. 30–40 years
4. 40–50 years

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 94

Rheumatology, Vasculitis & Connective Tissue · 2025 P1 Q60

Q237. A 42-year-old man presented with recurrent oral ulcers since one year, episodes of redness of eye and genital ulcers. Which one of the following tests is of diagnostic value?

1. Mantoux test
2. Drug-sensitivity test
3. Pathergy test
4. Patch test

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 392

Rheumatology, Vasculitis & Connective Tissue · 2020 P2 Q74

Q238. The initial prevention strategy for antiphospholipid syndrome will be: 1. Steroids 2. Heparin 3. Low dose aspirin 4. Progesterone support Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 2 and 3
2. 3 and 4
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 57

Rheumatology, Vasculitis & Connective Tissue · 2022 P1 Q50

Q239. Which of the following can be used to monitor disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis? 1. Pain (visual analogue scale) 2. X-Ray of hands and wrists 3. DAS 28 score 4. ESR Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 154

Rheumatology, Vasculitis & Connective Tissue · 2024 P1 Q82

Q240. Which one of the following antibodies is commonly associated with Drug-induced Lupus?

1. Anti-centromere antibody
2. Anti-Jo-1 antibody
3. Anti-histone antibody
4. Anti-RNP antibody

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 304

Rheumatology, Vasculitis & Connective Tissue · 2025 P1 Q16

Q241. Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of pulmonary involvement in rheumatoid disease?

1. Rheumatoid pulmonary nodules are usually asymptomatic and detected incidentally on imaging.
2. Rheumatoid pulmonary nodules are often solitary and located near hilum.
3. Pleural effusion in these patients is transudative and usually bilateral.
4. Combination of pleural effusion and pneumoconiosis in these patients is known as Caplan syndrome.

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 375

Rheumatology, Vasculitis & Connective Tissue · 2025 P2 Q45

Q242. The best drug for maintenance therapy of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) during pregnancy is:

1. Hydroxychloroquine
2. Sulfasalazine
3. Tacrolimus
4. Progestins

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 437

Bone Disorders & Blood Transfusion · 2021 P1 Q60

Q243. Use of which of the following drugs may result in osteoporosis? 1. Phenytoin 2. Lithium 3. Methotrexate 4. Azathioprine Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 87

Bone Disorders & Blood Transfusion · 2021 P1 Q84

Q244. First line drug treatment to reduce fractures in osteoporosis is:

1. Bisphosphonates
2. Denosumab
3. Teriparatide
4. Raloxifene

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 94

Bone Disorders & Blood Transfusion · 2022 P1 Q46

Q245. Which one of the following is a subcutaneous preparation useful for the treatment of osteoporosis?

1. Denosumab
2. Alendronate
3. Zoledronic acid
4. Raloxifene

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 153

Bone Disorders & Blood Transfusion · 2022 P1 Q47

Q246. Which of the following are correct with regard to osteoporosis? 1. It does not cause symptoms until a fracture occurs 2. Vertebral fracture can present with loss of height, in absence of pain 3. Smoking is protective 4. It sometimes presents incidentally as radiological osteopenia Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 153

Bone Disorders & Blood Transfusion · 2020 P1 Q50

Q247. Cryoprecipitate cannot be used for treatment of which one of the following conditions?

1. Von Willebrand disease
2. Hypofibrinogenemia
3. Hemophilia B
4. Hemophilia A

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 20

Bone Disorders & Blood Transfusion · 2023 P1 Q32

Q248. With regard to transfusion therapy, cryoprecipitate is a rich source of which of the following? 1. Fibrinogen 2. Clotting factor VIII 3. Clotting factor IX 4. von Willebrand factor Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 215

Bone Disorders & Blood Transfusion · 2020 P2 Q32

Q249. Which one of the following is NOT a complication of massive blood transfusion?

1. Coagulopathy
2. Hypocalcemia
3. Hyperthermia
4. Hyperkalemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 46

Bone Disorders & Blood Transfusion · 2022 P1 Q35

Q250. Which one of the following is correct regarding blood components in clinical practice?

1. ABO blood group antigens are polypeptide chains on the surface of RBCs
2. Platelets can be stored for up to 35 days
3. Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when mother’s IgA anti-RBC antibodies cross the placenta and lyse fetal RBCs
4. Transfusion-associated GVHD can be prevented by prior irradiation of transfused blood

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 150

Bone Disorders & Blood Transfusion · 2023 P1 Q33

Q251. Which of the following viruses can be transmitted via transfusion of infected blood? 1. Hepatitis B virus 2. Hepatitis C virus 3. Human immunodeficiency virus 4. Parvovirus B19 Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 215

Connective tissue disorder · 2020 P1 Q87

Q252. Which of the following features are associated with poor prognosis in Diffuse Cutaneous Systemic 1. Sclerosis? 2. Older age 3. A high gas transfer factor for carbon monoxide (TLCO) 4. Proteinuria Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 29  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2020 P1 Q95

Q253. Which one of the following is NOT an appropriate criterion for diagnosis of Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)?

1. Respiratory rate > 20/min
2. Heart rate > 90/min
3. Total leucocyte count > 16 × 10⁹ per litre
4. Temperature > 38°C

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 31  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2021 P1 Q82

Q254. Anti-Ribonucleoprotein antibody (Anti-RNP) is characteristically seen in which one of the following conditions?

1. Sjogren’s syndrome
2. Diffuse systemic sclerosis
3. Sarcoidosis
4. Mixed connective tissue disorder

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 94  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2024 P1 Q79

Q255. Schober’s test is used in the assessment of which one of the following clinical conditions?

1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
3. Ankylosing Spondylitis
4. Psoriasis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 303  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2024 P1 Q81

Q256. Anti-citrullinated peptide antibody is useful in diagnosis of:

1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Sjogren’s syndrome
3. Scleroderma
4. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 304  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2024 P1 Q82

Q257. Which one of the following antibodies is commonly associated with Drug-induced Lupus?

1. Anti-centromere antibody
2. Anti-Jo-1 antibody
3. Anti-histone antibody
4. Anti-RNP antibody

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 304  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2025 P2 Q45

Q258. The best drug for maintenance therapy of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) during pregnancy is:

1. Hydroxychloroquine
2. Sulfasalazine
3. Tacrolimus
4. Progestins

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 437  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2020 P1 Q86

Q259. Which of the following crystals are deposited in a case of pseudogout?

1. Monosodium urate
2. Calcium phosphate
3. Cholesterol crystals
4. Calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate (CPPD)

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 29  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2020 P1 Q88

Q260. Which of the following statements regarding Pegloticase are correct? 1. It is an enzyme conjugate. 2. It is useful in chronic gout management. 3. The main adverse effects are infusion reactions and development of antibodies. Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 29  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2021 P1 Q87

Q261. During physical assessment of a 55-year-old male with low back pain, the quadriceps (knee) reflex was absent. Which of the following nerve roots is most likely to be affected?

1. L2
2. L5
3. L4
4. S1

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 95  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2022 P1 Q48

Q262. Which of the following are correct with regard to Ankylosing spondylitis? 1.Bamboo spine may be seen 2.Early morning back pain is rare 3.Uveitis is the most common extra-articular feature 4.It is more common in males Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 1, 2, and 4
3. 1, 3, and 4
4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 153  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2024 P1 Q76

Q263. Heberden’s nodes are present mainly in:

1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Osteoarthritis
3. Psoriatic arthritis
4. Gouty arthritis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 302  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2024 P1 Q80

Q264. Urate crystals are described as having the following shape:

1. Short and stout
2. Long and needle-like
3. Small and triangular
4. Large and rhomboid

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 303  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2025 P1 Q12

Q265. Which one of the following terms denotes the extensive sclerosis of the skin of the chest wall which restricts chest wall movement and is seen as a rare complication of systemic sclerosis ?

1. Flail Chest
2. Hidebound Chest
3. Barrel Chest
4. Pigeon Chest

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 373  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2025 P1 Q61

Q266. Which of the following joints are commonly affected in osteoarthritis ? I. First metatarsophalangeal joint II. Proximal interphalangeal joint III. Ankle joint IV. 5th and 6th cervical vertebrae joint Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. I and II only
2. III and IV only
3. I, II and IV only
4. I, II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 392  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2022 P1 Q50

Q267. Which of the following can be used to monitor disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis? 1.Pain (visual analogue scale) 2.X-Ray of hands and wrists 3.DAS 28 score 4.ESR Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 1, 2, and 4
3. 1, 3, and 4
4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 154  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

Connective tissue disorder · 2025 P1 Q87

Q268. Treatment of first choice in acute Gout is

1. Oral Methotrexate
2. Oral Colchicine
3. Allopurinol
4. Sulfasalazine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 402  ·  Rapid Revision — page 316

SarcoidosisRepeated many time in · 2024 P1 Q11

Q269. Consider the following statements regarding Lofgren syndrome: 1. It is an acute illness and is more commonly seen in females. 2. It is a clinically distinct phenotype of sarcoidosis characterized by peripheral arthropathy and uveitis. 3. Clinical features include fever, erythema, nodosum and bilateral lymphadenopathy. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 280  ·  Rapid Revision — page 317

Granulomatous Vasculitis vs Non Granulomatous Vasculitis · 2020 P1 Q84

Q270. A 20 year young lady presents with high grade fever for five days and palpable purpura over extremities. She is found to be confused, with presence of neck stiffness. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
2. Acute meningococcemia
3. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
4. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 29  ·  Rapid Revision — page 318

Granulomatous Vasculitis vs Non Granulomatous Vasculitis · 2021 P1 Q83

Q271. Polyarteritis nodosa has peak incidence between the ages of:

1. 10–20 years
2. 20–30 years
3. 30–40 years
4. 40–50 years

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 94  ·  Rapid Revision — page 318

Granulomatous Vasculitis vs Non Granulomatous Vasculitis · 2023 P1 Q7

Q272. Which one of the following diseases affects predominantly large arteries?

1. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
2. Polyarteritis nodosa
3. Giant cell arteritis
4. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 209  ·  Rapid Revision — page 318

Granulomatous Vasculitis vs Non Granulomatous Vasculitis · 2025 P2 Q1

Q273. Vibration white finger refers to:

1. Buerger’s disease
2. Raynaud’s syndrome
3. Acrocyanosis
4. Takayasu disease

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 417  ·  Rapid Revision — page 318

Granulomatous Vasculitis vs Non Granulomatous Vasculitis · 2025 P1 Q60

Q274. A 42 year old man presented with recurrent oral ulcers since one year, episodes of redness of eye and genital ulcers. Which one of the following tests is of diagnostic value ?

1. Mantoux test
2. Drug-sensitivity test
3. Pathergy test
4. Patch test

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 392  ·  Rapid Revision — page 318

Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) · 2023 P1 Q22

Q275. Which of the following are recommended for management of tumour lysis syndrome? Urinary alkalinization Intravenous fluids Rasburicase Febuxostat Select the correct answer using the code below.

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 212  ·  Rapid Revision — page 321

Drugs used in osteoporosis. · 2021 P1 Q60

Q276. Use of which of the following drugs may result in osteoporosis? 1. Phenytoin 2. Lithium 3. Methotrexate 4. Azathioprine Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 87  ·  Rapid Revision — page 322

Drugs used in osteoporosis. · 2021 P1 Q84

Q277. First line drug treatment to reduce fractures in osteoporosis is:

1. Bisphosphonates
2. Denosumab
3. Teriparatide
4. Raloxifene

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 94  ·  Rapid Revision — page 322

Drugs used in osteoporosis. · 2022 P1 Q46

Q278. Which one of the following is a subcutaneous preparation useful for the treatment of osteoporosis?

1. Denosumab
2. Alendronate
3. Zoledronic acid
4. Raloxifene

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 153  ·  Rapid Revision — page 322

Drugs used in osteoporosis. · 2022 P1 Q47

Q279. Which of the following are correct with regard to osteoporosis? 1.It does not cause symptoms until a fracture occurs 2.Vertebral fracture can present with loss of height, in absence of pain 3.Smoking is protective 4.It sometimes presents incidentally as radiological osteopenia Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 1, 2, and 4
3. 1, 3, and 4
4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 153  ·  Rapid Revision — page 322

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q64

Q280. Which one of the following is the myelinating cell of Central Nervous System?

1. Astrocyte
2. Microglia
3. Schwann cell
4. Oligodendrocyte

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 394

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q84

Q281. Glymphatics is the lymphatic structure of which system?

1. Central Nervous System
2. Respiratory
3. Renal
4. Gastro-intestinal

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 401

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2020 P1 Q40

Q282. Constructional skills is a function of which lobe?

1. Dominant temporal lobe
2. Non dominant parietal lobe
3. Frontal lobe
4. Non dominant temporal lobe

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 16

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2021 P1 Q45

Q283. Lesion of dominant parietal lobe produces which of the following? 1. Dysphasia 2. Acalculia 3. Dyslexia 4. Contralateral neglect Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 83

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2022 P1 Q52

Q284. Tests for graphesthesia and stereognosis are used clinically to assess:

1. Cortical sensation
2. Posterior column
3. Cerebellar function
4. Lateral spinothalamic tract

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 155

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2024 P1 Q36

Q285. Contralateral homonymous lower quadrantanopia is the type of visual loss seen when the lesion is located at one of the following anatomical locations?

1. Frontal lobe
2. Temporal lobe
3. Parietal lobe
4. Occipital lobe

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 289

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q33

Q286. Contralateral homonymous upper quadrantanopia is the type of visual loss seen when the lesion is located at which one of the following anatomical locations?

1. Frontal lobe
2. Temporal lobe
3. Parietal lobe
4. Occipital lobe

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 381

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2020 P2 Q22

Q287. Which one of the following cranial nerves does NOT supply to the external ear?

1. Cranial nerve V
2. Cranial nerve VI
3. Cranial nerve VII
4. Cranial nerve IX

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 43

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2024 P1 Q38

Q288. Consider the following statements regarding cluster headache: 1. The headaches are periodic, beginning at the same time for weeks at a stretch. 2. Patients experience severe, unilateral periorbital pain which typically lasts from 30–90 minutes. 3. The headache is accompanied with autonomic features such as ipsilateral tearing, nasal congestion and conjunctival injection. 4. Subcutaneous injection of Sumatriptan or inhalation of 100% oxygen may be beneficial in halting acute attacks. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 3 and 4 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 290

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2024 P1 Q39

Q289. A 22-year-old lady presented with complaint of chronic daily headache. She has prior history of migraine but increasingly unrelieved with analgesics. She has history of using Sumatriptan almost daily since the last three weeks. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Sub-arachnoid hemorrhage
2. Cluster headache
3. Medication overuse headache
4. Trigeminal neuralgia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 290

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q95

Q290. Which one of the following is a secondary cause of headache?

1. Migraine
2. Tension-type headache
3. Trigeminal autonomic cephalalgia
4. Medication overuse headache

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 405

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q34

Q291. Which of the following are clinical features of migraine? I. It is associated with dilatation of extracranial vessels II. Common migraine is seen without Aura III. Aura is most often visual Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I and II only
3. II and III only
4. I and III only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 381

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2020 P1 Q39

Q292. Drug choice for the treatment of Trigeminal Neuralgia is:

1. Carbamazepine
2. Aceclofenac
3. Thiamine
4. Prednisolone

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 16

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q35

Q293. A 50-year-old man presents with brief episodes of lancinating unilateral facial pain, involving the buccal distribution. Pain is triggered by washing face with cold water. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Migraine
2. Medication overuse headache
3. Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania
4. Trigeminal neuralgia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 381

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2024 P1 Q41

Q294. A 75-year-old man presented with temporal headache, jaw pain, exacerbated by chewing and talking. Which one of the following investigations will most likely help in diagnosis?

1. Temporal artery biopsy
2. Electromyography
3. MRI of the brain
4. Carotid colour Doppler

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 291

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2023 P1 Q94

Q295. Which of the following are the features of post-lumbar puncture headache? 1. Dull aching occipitofrontal headache 2. Worse on waking but improves during the day 3. Recumbency usually improves the headache within minutes Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 232

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2020 P1 Q47

Q296. A 35-year-old man presents with low grade fever and headache for last five weeks with signs of meningitis. He undergoes lumbar puncture (LP) and a day later reports worsening headache. Which one of the following features is NOT consistent with diagnosis of “Post-LP” headache?

1. Post-LP headache usually begins within 48 hours
2. Post-LP headache worsens in sitting position
3. Post-LP headache is most severe upon waking up
4. Post-LP headache may improve with caffeine intake

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 19

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2023 P1 Q23

Q297. Focal seizures may be associated with which of the following? 1. Jacksonian march 2. Todd’s paralysis 3. Epilepsia partialis continua Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 212

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2023 P1 Q24

Q298. Typical absence seizures are characterized by:

1. abrupt 3 Hz spike-and-slow wave discharges on EEG
2. postictal confusion in children
3. multifocal structural abnormalities of brain
4. less responsiveness to anti-convulsant as compared to atypical absence seizures

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 213

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2024 P1 Q40

Q299. Consider the following with regard to trigger factors for seizures: 1. Flickering lights 2. Recreational drug misuse 3. Non-compliance to treatment with antiepileptic drugs 4. Sleep deprivation Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 3 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 290

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q36

Q300. Which of the following are trigger factors for seizures? I. Sleep deprivation II. Missed doses of antiepileptic drugs III. Recreational drug misuse IV. Physical exhaustion Select the correct answer using the code:

1. II and III only
2. I and IV only
3. I, II and III only
4. I, II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 382

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q37

Q301. Which one of the following childhood epileptic disorders often needs long term treatment with anti epileptic drugs?

1. Benign neonatal seizures
2. Febrile seizures
3. Benign Rolandic epilepsy
4. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 382

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2020 P1 Q38

Q302. A 60-year-old patient is admitted in emergency with seizure, aphasia and altered sensorium. He has a fever and headache for the preceding 3 days. The CSF examination is unremarkable. What would be the probable diagnosis?

1. Multiple sclerosis (MS)
2. Tubercular meningitis
3. Pyogenic (bacterial) meningitis
4. Viral encephalitis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 16

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2021 P1 Q43

Q303. Consider the following statements regarding Intracerebral Hemorrhage (ICH): 1. It accounts for 35% of all strokes. 2. Most common site of hypertensive ICH is cerebral cortex. 3. Use of cocaine and methamphetamine is a frequent cause of stroke in young age. 4. Hypertensive ICH usually results from spontaneous rupture of small penetrating artery deep in brain. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 82

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2022 P1 Q32

Q304. Which of the following are risk factors for Stroke? 1. Sickle cell disease 2. Cigarette smoking 3. Hypofibrinogenemia 4. Atrial fibrillation Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 150

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2023 P1 Q25

Q305. Which of the following are contra-indications to thrombolysis in acute ischemic stroke? 1. Recent head injury 2. Recent MI 3. Hypertension > 150/100 mm Hg 4. GI bleeding in last 3 weeks Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 213

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q77

Q306. The most common cause for non-traumatic sub-arachnoid haemorrhage is:

1. A-V malformation
2. Saccular aneurysm rupture
3. Extension from primary cerebral haemorrhage
4. Idiopathic

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 398

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2021 P1 Q98

Q307. A child presents with headache and vomiting in the emergency room following a fall from the bed. Which one of the following treatment modalities is not recommended in the emergency room?

1. Intravenous mannitol administration
2. Administration of hypertonic (3%) solution
3. Elevate the head end by 30 degrees
4. Therapeutic lumbar puncture

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 98

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2020 P1 Q44

Q308. A 68-year-old male presented in OPD with complaints of progressive small handwriting. On examination, he had resting tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity and postural instability. This patient is suffering most likely from:

1. Parkinson’s disease
2. Vascular dementia
3. Alzheimer’s disease
4. Frontotemporal dementia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 18

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2020 P1 Q45

Q309. An elderly patient presents with abnormal gait. He has a wide base freezing gait with imbalance, comprising short strides, shuffling along the floor and difficulty with starts and turns. Heel-Shin test is normal. Which one of the following is the most likely disorder?

1. Cerebellar ataxia
2. Sensory ataxia
3. Frontal gait disorder
4. Parkinson’s disease

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 18

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2021 P1 Q47

Q310. Which of the following are clinical features of Parkinson’s disease? 1. Bradykinesia 2. Rigidity 3. Spastic gait 4. Mask-like face Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 83

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2022 P1 Q27

Q311. Which of the following are correct regarding Essential Tremors? 1. It may present at any age 2. Head is almost never involved 3. Tremor may improve with a small amount of alcohol Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 148

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2022 P1 Q28

Q312. Which of the following drugs may be associated with Parkinson’s disease? 1. Atypical antipsychotic drugs 2. Lithium 3. MPTP (methyl-phenyl-tetrahydro-pyridine) Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 148

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2022 P1 Q29

Q313. Which of the following are suggestive of Parkinson’s disease? 1. Lead pipe rigidity 2. Cogwheel rigidity 3. Festinating gait 4. Romberg test positive Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 148

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2022 P1 Q30

Q314. Which of the following are correct regarding Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease? 1. Motor symptoms are almost always initially symmetrical 2. Non-motor symptoms include hyposmia and constipation 3. Cognition is spared in early disease 4. Speech may become softer and indistinct Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 148

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2022 P1 Q31

Q315. Which of the following are correct with regard to Levodopa? 1. It is most effective for relieving tremors 2. Only a small portion of the total drug reaches the brain 3. Nausea may be offset by domperidone 4. It may trigger hallucinations Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 149

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2024 P1 Q33

Q316. Consider the following clinical features: 1. Hypomimia 2. Dysphonia 3. Festination gait 4. Cogwheel rigidity. Which of the features given above are generally present in Parkinsonism? 1. Hypomimia 2. Dysphonia 3. Festination gait 4. Cogwheel rigidity Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 289

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2024 P1 Q34

Q317. Circuits between the basal ganglia and the motor cortex constitute the extrapyramidal system which controls muscle tone, body posture and the initiation of movement. Lesions of the extrapyramidal system present clinically with:

1. Tremor and rigidity
2. Seizures
3. Urinary incontinence
4. Muscle wasting

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 289

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q38

Q318. Which of the following are clinical features of Parkinson’s disease? I. Reduced eye blinking II. Drooling of saliva III. Soft voice IV. Macrographia Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 382

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2021 P1 Q38

Q319. Which one of the following is the single strongest risk factor for dementia?

1. Increasing age
2. Alcoholism
3. Positive family history
4. Systemic illness

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 80

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2021 P1 Q40

Q320. Visual hallucination is characteristic of which type of dementia?

1. Diffuse Lewy body dementia
2. Frontotemporal dementia
3. Alzheimer’s dementia
4. Vascular dementia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 81

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2024 P1 Q88

Q321. Which of the following are inherited causes of dementia? 1. Alzheimer’s disease 2. Huntington’s disease 3. Wilson’s disease 4. Punch-drunk syndrome Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 306

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q62

Q322. Which of the following are causes of reversible dementia? I. Hypothyroidism II. Vitamin B12 deficiency III. Dementia with Lewy body IV. Thiamine deficiency Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 393

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q63

Q323. Which of the following are clinical features of Fronto-Temporal dementia? I. Personality change II. Language disturbance III. Memory may be preserved in early stages IV. Anti-cholinesterase are the drug of choice for treatment Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 393

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q83

Q324. Which of the following are features of Alzheimer’s disease? I. It is a disorder of cerebral cortical function II. Only short-term memory is affected III. Patients deny that there is anything wrong IV. Depression is commonly present Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 401

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2024 P1 Q35

Q325. Consider the following statements regarding Transient Global Amnesia (TGA): 1. TGA mainly affects middle aged persons who present with abrupt, discrete loss of anterograde memory lasting for few hours. 2. During the episode, the patients are unable to record new memories resulting in repetitive questioning. 3. Consciousness is impaired during the episode and the patient is unable to perform even simple motor functions. 4. After 4-6 hours, memory function and behavior return to normal but the patient has complete and persistent amnesia for the duration of the episode. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 289

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q67

Q326. The 4A Test is a screening tool for detection of delirium. Which of the following parameters are included in the 4AT tool? I. Alertness II. Apnoea III. Abbreviated Mental Test (AMT4) IV. Attention Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 395

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q86

Q327. In clinical assessment of an elderly patient, ‘the get up and go test’ is used to evaluate which of the following?

1. Gait and balance
2. Cognition
3. Driving ability
4. Urinary incontinence

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 401

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2020 P1 Q41

Q328. Vertical gaze palsy with Convergence Retraction Nystagmus is seen in:

1. Weber syndrome
2. Millard Gubler syndrome
3. Claude syndrome
4. Parinaud syndrome

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 17

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2020 P1 Q42

Q329. A patient looking forward was found to have his right eye deviated downwards and outwards with pupil dilated. He is suffering from:

1. Left 3rd nerve palsy
2. Left 6th nerve palsy
3. Right 4th nerve palsy
4. Right 3rd nerve palsy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 17

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2024 P1 Q37

Q330. Which of the following correctly describes the primary position of the right eye in right 3rd cranial nerve palsy?

1. Downwards and outwards
2. Downwards and inwards
3. Upwards and outwards
4. Upwards and inwards

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 289

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2021 P1 Q44

Q331. A 21-year-old young lady presents with unilateral facial weakness. She is unable to close her eye on the affected side and there are vesicles in her ear. She is suffering from:

1. 8th Cranial Nerve Palsy
2. 3rd Cranial Nerve Palsy
3. 5th Cranial Nerve Palsy
4. 7th Cranial Nerve Palsy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 83

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q50

Q332. Which of the following is the most favourable prognostic parameter in Bell’s palsy?

1. Incomplete paralysis in the first week
2. Mild CSF lymphocytosis
3. Denervation in EMG after 10 days
4. Pain behind the ear

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 387

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2021 P1 Q36

Q333. The presence of Beevor’s sign on neurological examination is characteristic of spinal cord lesion at which one of the following levels?

1. T3–T4
2. T7–T8
3. T9–T10
4. None

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 80

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2021 P1 Q37

Q334. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding lower motor neuron type of lesion?

1. Fasciculation is absent
2. Deep tendon reflexes are increased
3. Clonus is present
4. Plantar reflex shows flexor response

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 80

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2024 P2 Q29

Q335. Upper motor neuron lesions are characterized by which of the following? 1. Increased tone / spasticity 2. Hyperreflexia 3. Absent plantar response 4. Motor weakness Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 329

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2020 P1 Q43

Q336. All of the following are features of Cauda Equina syndrome EXCEPT:

1. Low back pain
2. Lower limb areflexia
3. Loss of bladder function
4. Extensor plantar response

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 17

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2023 P2 Q34

Q337. Consider the following clinical features: 1. Low back pain 2. Saddle anesthesia 3. Motor weakness in the lower extremities 4. Variable rectal and urinary symptoms. Which is the correct answer in case of cauda equina syndrome? 1. Low back pain 2. Saddle anesthesia 3. Motor weakness in the lower extremities 4. Variable rectal and urinary symptoms Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 3 and 4
2. 1 and 2
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 250

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P2 Q10

Q338. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Cauda equina syndrome? I. Its presenting symptoms are perineal numbness, painless urinary retention and fecal incontinence. II. Urgent investigation with MRI is required. III. It is present most commonly in the 45-60 year age group. IV. Confirmed cases require early surgical decompression. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 420

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2022 P1 Q33

Q339. Which of the following are correct in respect of Myasthenia gravis? 1. Symptoms worsen towards the end of the day 2. There may be difficulty in chewing and swallowing 3. Acetylcholine receptors in the pre-junctional membrane are involved 4. Penicillamine may precipitate similar illness Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 150

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2022 P1 Q49

Q340. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is associated with which of the following features? 1. Pain and tingling in hands at night 2. Weakness of thumb abduction 3. Loss of sensation over the lateral half of the palm 4. Atrophy of hypothenar eminence Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 153

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2023 P1 Q26

Q341. Which one of the following distinguishes axonal degeneration from segmental demyelination on electrophysiological studies?

1. Distal latency is normal in axonal degeneration and prolonged in segmental demyelination
2. Conduction velocity is slow in axonal degeneration and normal in segmental demyelination
3. Conduction block is present in axonal degeneration and absent in segmental demyelination
4. Temporal dispersion is prominent in axonal degeneration and absent in segmental demyelination

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 213

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2024 P1 Q77

Q342. A patient developed difficulty in standing from a seated position, walking up steps, squatting and lifting arms overhead. Chronic therapy with which of the following drugs is likely to result in such presentation?

1. Acetaminophen
2. Fexofenadine
3. Glucocorticoids
4. Metformin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 303

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q76

Q343. What are the components to establish the diagnosis of Brain Death? I. Absent brain stem reflexes II. Apnoea in presence of elevated PCO₂ III. Hypothermia IV. Irreversible and unresponsive coma Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II and IV only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 398

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q81

Q344. Out of the following areas of brain, which area is most commonly affected on brain imaging in Wilson’s disease?

1. Cerebellum
2. Sub-cortex
3. Thalamus
4. Basal ganglia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 400

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2022 P1 Q60

Q345. Which of the following drugs can cause Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension? 1. Tetracycline 2. Retinoid 3. Vitamin A 4. Sulfonamides Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 157

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2022 P1 Q59

Q346. In a healthy young adult, what proportion of sleep time is comprised of Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep?

1. 5-10%
2. 20-25%
3. 45-50%
4. 70-75%

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 156

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2021 P1 Q18

Q347. A 60-year-old obese person (weighing 110 kg) has excessive daytime sleepiness, morning headache, irritability and mood disturbances, with dry mouth, nocturnal heartburn and diaphoresis of the chest and neck. Which one of the following will be the best investigation to diagnose the patient?

1. Ambulatory Blood Pressure Monitoring (ABPM)
2. 24-hour Holter Monitoring
3. Echocardiography
4. Overnight Polysomnogram

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 75

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2021 P1 Q89

Q348. Which of the following are the diseases associated with DNA repeat sequences? 1. Huntington’s disease 2. Myotonic dystrophy 3. Friedreich’s ataxia 4. Klinefelter syndrome Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 96

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2020 P1 Q93

Q349. Which one of the following is most appropriate to describe classic heat stroke?

1. Core body temperature rises above 44°C with headache, nausea, and loss of consciousness
2. Core body temperature rises above 40°C with muscle tremors, confusion, loss of consciousness and loss of sweating
3. Core body temperature rises above 38°C with increased sweating, tachypnoea, tachycardia, and loss of consciousness
4. Core body temperature is above 40°C with disorientation, increased sweating, peripheral vasodilation, tachycardia, and loss of consciousness

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 31

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q73

Q350. Which of the following statements are typical for classic heat stroke? I. Older patient II. Normokalemia III. Hyponatremia IV. Marked lactic acidosis Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I and III
2. I and II
3. III and IV
4. II and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 397

Central Nervous System (CNS) · 2025 P1 Q80

Q351. A 28-year female presented to emergency with fever, agitation and delirium. She was on regular medication of Carbimazole 40 mg daily, but missed her doses for the last 2 days. Which of the following scoring systems would you like to do to assess severity of disease?

1. DAS 28 score
2. Burch-Wartofsky score
3. Expanded Disability Status Scale
4. Sequential Organ Failure Assessment Score

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 399

Endocrine system · 2020 P1 Q58

Q352. Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding the thyroid function/disorder in pregnancy?

1. There is an increase in the metabolism of thyroxine by placenta
2. Hyperemesis gravidarum may be associated with thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy
3. Levothyroxine replacement therapy dose should be decreased by 30–50% early in pregnancy
4. Impaired cognitive impairment may be seen in the offspring of mother with subclinical hypothyroidism

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 22

Endocrine system · 2020 P1 Q63

Q353. All the following can be seen in the case of thyrotoxicosis, EXCEPT:

1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Periodic paralysis
3. Deafness
4. Osteoporosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 24

Endocrine system · 2020 P2 Q39

Q354. Which one of the following is NOT correct regarding MEN-1 syndrome?

1. It involves parathyroid glands
2. It involves pancreas
3. It involves pituitary gland
4. It involves pineal gland

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 48

Endocrine system · 2021 P1 Q63

Q355. Hirsutism is seen in which of the following? 1. Polycystic ovarian syndrome 2. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Ovarian tumour Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 88

Endocrine system · 2021 P1 Q66

Q356. A 42-year-old lady presents with symptoms of tiredness, constipation, impaired hearing and weight gain in spite of poor appetite. Which of the following are relevant investigations in this case? 1. TSH level 2. Free T4 levels (unbound T4) 3. Anti-TPO antibodies 4. Radionuclide scan of the thyroid Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 88

Endocrine system · 2021 P1 Q67

Q357. A patient presents with circulatory shock, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. A diagnosis of acute adrenal crisis is considered. A blood sample is stored for measurement of serum cortisol and treatment started without delay. Which of the following are appropriate interventions? 1. IV normal saline 2. IV hydrocortisone 100 mg stat 3. IV 10% glucose 4. IV KCl as infusion Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 89

Endocrine system · 2021 P1 Q69

Q358. Which of the following are the potentially reversible causes of weight gain? 1. Insulinoma 2. Cushing’s syndrome 3. Sulfonylureas 4. Beta-blockers Select the correct answer using the code :

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 90

Endocrine system · 2022 P1 Q38

Q359. Which of the following statements are correct regarding short stature? 1.Linear bone growth rates are pituitary dependent 2.Normal bone age in a child with short stature suggests hormonal disorder 3.Final height in boys can be estimated by adding 6-5 cm to mid-parental height 4.Replacement therapy with recombinant GH restores growth velocity in GH-deficient children Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 151

Endocrine system · 2022 P1 Q78

Q360. A Thyroid Function Test report shows the following results: TSH-Undetectable, T3-Raised, T4-Raised Which one of the following will be the most likely interpretation on the basis of the above report?

1. Hypothyroidism secondary to pituitary disease
2. Transient thyroiditis in evolution
3. Primary thyrotoxicosis
4. Overtreatment of hypothyroidism with Liothyronine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 161

Endocrine system · 2023 P1 Q38

Q361. Iodine has complex effects on thyroid function. Very high concentrations of iodine inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis and release. This effect is known as

1. Wolff-Chaikoff effect
2. Jod-Basedow effect
3. reverse Wolff-Chaikoff effect
4. reverse Jod-Basedow effect

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 215

Endocrine system · 2023 P1 Q42

Q362. Functioning pituitary adenoma most commonly arises from which one of the following cells?

1. Somatotroph
2. Lactotroph
3. Corticotroph
4. Thyrotroph

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 216

Endocrine system · 2024 P1 Q47

Q363. Which one of the following diseases is characterized by destructive lymphoid infiltration of the thyroid gland leading to fibrosis and enlargement of the thyroid gland with an increased risk of developing thyroid lymphoma ?

1. de Quervain’s Thyroiditis
2. Multinodular Goitre
3. Riedel’s thyroiditis
4. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 293

Endocrine system · 2024 P1 Q51

Q364. With regards to treatment of thyrotoxicosis of Grave’s disease, consider the following statements 1. Propylthiouracil is suitable in breastfeeding patients. 2. Large goitre is an indication for thyroidectomy. 3. Radioiodine is recommended for management in pregnancy. 4. Agranulocytosis is a complication associated with carbimazole. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 294

Endocrine system · 2025 P1 Q45

Q365. Under which one of the following conditions, the HPA axis suppression is likely to result in crisis due to adrenal insufficiency following withdrawal of glucocorticoids ?

1. If glucocorticoids have been given by intravenous route for five days
2. If glucocorticoids have been administered orally for one week
3. If glucocorticoids have been prescribed repeatedly within the previous year
4. If the dose is less than equivalent of 5 mg prednisolone per day

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 386

Endocrine system · 2020 P1 Q61

Q366. Consider the following statements about erectile dysfunction in diabetic males:

1. It affects 60 % of males
2. Its common cause is an underlying neuro-vascular pathology
3. It may be aggravated by beta-adrenergic agonist drugs
4. Endocrine disorders like hyperprolactinemia may cause it Which of the statements given above are true?

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 23

Endocrine system · 2020 P1 Q66

Q367. Consider the following statements with regard to Graves’ ophthalmopathy : 1. Proptosis is often asymmetric and can even appear to be unilateral 2. It is a clinical diagnosis 3. Worsening of symptoms upon glucocorticoid withdrawal is common 4. Radiation therapy is very effective in treatment Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 24

Endocrine system · 2021 P1 Q65

Q368. Which of the following are correct regarding Diabetes insipidus? 1. Polyuria and polydipsia are common symptoms. 2. Urine is of low osmolality and specific gravity. 3. Lithium is useful in treatment. 4. It is potentially lethal, if hypothalamic thirst centre is damaged. Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 88

Endocrine system · 2022 P1 Q40

Q369. Which of the following constitute differential diagnosis of hypocalcemia? 1.Hypomagnesemia 2.Chronic alcoholism 3.Pseudohypoparathyroidism 4.Paget’s disease Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 151

Endocrine system · 2022 P1 Q41

Q370. Which of the following are useful for the treatment of Hirsutism? 1.Amiloride 2.Oestrogen 3.Finasteride 4.Spironolactone Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 1, 2, and 4
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 152

Endocrine system · 2023 P1 Q37

Q371. GnRH deficiency with hyposmia is typically seen in

1. Kallmann syndrome
2. Bardet-Biedl syndrome
3. Prader-Willi syndrome
4. Wallenberg syndrome

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 215

Endocrine system · 2023 P1 Q39

Q372. Consider the following pharmacological agents: 1. Propranolol 2. Sodium ipodate 3. Propylthiouracil 4. Liothyronine Which of the above can be used for the treatment of thyrotoxic crisis?

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 216

Endocrine system · 2023 P1 Q40

Q373. Consider the following pharmacological agents: 1. Liothyronine 2. Levothyroxine 3. Carbimazole 4. Sodium ipodate Which of the above may be included in the treatment of myxedema coma?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 216

Endocrine system · 2023 P1 Q43

Q374. Low serum thyroglobulin levels are seen in

1. thyrotoxicosis factitial
2. subacute thyroiditis
3. Graves’ disease
4. toxic multinodular goitre

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 216

Endocrine system · 2023 P1 Q48

Q375. Which one of the following is an example of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

1. Kallmann’s syndrome
2. Klinefelter’s syndrome
3. Turner’s syndrome
4. Cryptorchidism

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 218

Endocrine system · 2024 P1 Q52

Q376. With regard to management of hypothyroidism, consider the following statements : 1. Treatment is with levothyroxine replacement. 2. It is taken as a single daily dose. 3. Average dose is 1-6 μg/kg/day. 4. Full dose per weight should be started in those with coronary artery disease. Which of the statements given above are correct ?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 294

Endocrine system · 2020 P1 Q21

Q377. Which one of the following is NOT true about Ghrelin?

1. It stimulates appetite
2. It decreases gastric emptying
3. It increases acid secretion
4. Fasting increases its secretion

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 12

Endocrine system · 2020 P1 Q60

Q378. A young lady presents in outdoor clinic with complaints of menstrual irregularity, weight gain, hair loss, tiredness and weakness. What will be the investigation of choice?

1. FSH & LH level
2. Estrogen level
3. Free T3 and free T4 level
4. Free T4 and TSH level

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 22

Endocrine system · 2020 P1 Q64

Q379. Which one of the following hormones acts via the receptor tyrosine kinase?

1. FSH
2. TSH
3. IGF-1
4. PTH

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 24

Endocrine system · 2021 P1 Q64

Q380. Which of the following are correct regarding hypothyroidism? 1. It is more common in females. 2. Autoimmunity is a rare etiopathogenesis. 3. In pregnancy, increased dose of levothyroxine is required. 4. Suppressed TSH is a risk factor for osteoporosis. Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 88

Endocrine system · 2024 P1 Q49

Q381. Which of the following are correct regarding Cortisol? 1. Levels are highest in the morning on waking. 2. Cortisol falls dramatically during an illness. 3. More than 95% circulating cortisol is protein bound. 4. It is the major glucocorticoid in humans and can also activate mineralocorticoid receptors. Select the answer using the code given below :

1. 1, 3 and 4
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 293

Endocrine system · 2024 P1 Q54

Q382. Which of the following findings are seen in Diabetic Retinopathy on fundus examination ? 1. Microaneurysm 2. Dot and blot hemorrhage 3. Retinal thickening 4. Neovascularization Select the correct answer using the code below :

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 295

Endocrine system · 2024 P1 Q92

Q383. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to glucose homeostasis? 1. Insulin level rises postprandially. 2. Major portion of postprandial glucose is used by skeletal muscle. 3. Brain uses glucose in an insulin-dependent manner. 4. Glucagon is secreted during exercise. Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 307

Endocrine system · 2024 P1 Q93

Q384. Consider the following pancreatic hormones: 1. Insulin 2. Islet amyloid polypeptide or amylin 3. Glucagon 4. Somatostatin Which of the above is/are secreted by beta cells of the pancreatic islets?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 2
4. 1 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 307

Endocrine system · 2025 P1 Q26

Q385. Which one of the following conditions is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the sodium-potassium-2-chloride cotransporter (NKCC2), and presents with sodium wasting, hypokalemia, hypomagnesaemia and hypercalciuria?

1. Alport syndrome
2. Bartter syndrome
3. Fanconi syndrome
4. Gitelman syndrome

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 378

Endocrine system · 2022 P1 Q79

Q386. Which of the following biochemical abnormalities is seen in severe hypertriglyceridemia?

1. Pseudohyponatremia
2. Metabolic alkalosis
3. Hyperuricemia
4. Hyperkalemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 162

Endocrine system · 2024 P1 Q56

Q387. Which of the following is an inhibitor of the intestinal mucosal transporter NPC1L1, responsible for the absorption of dietary and biliary cholesterol

1. Atorvastatin
2. Fenofibrate
3. Metformin
4. Ezetimibe

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 296

Endocrine system · 2022 P1 Q90

Q388. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of vitamin D? Skin exposure to sunlight is the main source Deficiency of vitamin D causes distal muscle weakness Vitamin D synthesis decreases in winter, as one moves away from the equator Body store accumulated during summer is consumed during winter Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 1, 2, and 4
3. 1, 3, and 4
4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 164

Endocrine system · 2023 P1 Q62

Q389. Which of the following abnormalities occur from vitamin D deficiency in children? 1. Craniotabes 2. Bossing of frontal and parietal bones 3. Muscle hypotonia 4. Shrinking of epiphysis at the lower end of radius Select the correct answer using the code below.

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 223

Endocrine system · 2024 P1 Q70

Q390. Consider the following statements with regard to Vitamin D deficiency: 1. Vitamin D deficiency is common in northern latitudes. 2. Vitamin D deficiency is more likely to develop in people with dark skin. 3. Exposure to UV light is advisable in patients with Vitamin D deficiency. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 300

Endocrine system · 2022 P1 Q89

Q391. Consider the following statements with regard to vitamin C: It is heat stable. Normal platelets are poor in ascorbate. Perifollicular hyperkeratosis is a clinical sign of scurvy. Infants fed exclusively on boiled milk are vitamin C deficient. Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 4
4. 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 164

Endocrine system · 2022 P1 Q94

Q392. An elderly alcoholic man who mainly eats a diet of maize and maize products presents with complaints of chronic diarrhea, severe sunburn-like lesions, tension on exposed parts, and acute delirium. He is admitted. What is the likely diagnosis and its treatment?

1. Celiac disease, Gluten-free diet
2. Vitamin B12 deficiency, Parenteral B12 therapy
3. Pellagra, Niacin therapy
4. Whipple’s disease, Doxycycline + Trimethoprim

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 165

Endocrine system · 2025 P1 Q54

Q393. A 36 year old man presents with decreased appetite, mouth soreness, diarrhoea and irritability. On examination he has a bright red tongue with a pigmented scaly rash around the neck. Which one of the following food items in his diet has a bearing on his disease ?

1. Rice
2. Wheat
3. Corn
4. Fish

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 390

Endocrine system · 2025 P1 Q56

Q394. Consider the following statements with regard to the treatment of vitamin A deficiency : I. Repeated high doses of retinol can cause liver damage and teratogenicity II. Acute overdose of vitamin A may lead to increased intracranial pressure and skin desquamation III. Regular vitamin A supplementation is also recommended for pregnant women even in countries where vitamin A deficiency is not endemic IV. Excessive intake of carotene may cause harmless orange pigmentation of the skin Which of the statements given above are correct ?

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 390

Endocrine system · 2023 P1 Q84

Q395. Carotenoderma, due to ingestion of excessive amounts of carotene-containing fruits and vegetables, can be distinguished from jaundice by sparing of which of the following?

1. Palms
2. Soles
3. Nasolabial folds
4. Sclerae

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 230

Endocrine system · 2021 P1 Q23

Q396. Consider the following statements with regard to “Anorexia of Aging”: 1. Declining chemosensory function (smell and taste) 2. Reduced efficiency of chewing 3. Slowed gastric emptying 4. Alterations in the neuro-endocrine axis Which of the above statements are associated with early satiety and weight loss in elderly?

1. 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 77

Primary Hyperparathyroidism · 2022 P1 Q80

Q397. Which of the following statements are correct about treatment with vitamin D supplement? Serum calcium levels improve earlier than serum PTH levels. Patients should be closely observed with serial vitamin D levels in blood as vitamin D toxicity occurs frequently Vitamin D supplementation should always be in conjunction with calcium supplementation. Nephrolithiasis is a known complication Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 1, 2, and 4
3. 1, 3, and 4
4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 162  ·  Rapid Revision — page 332

Primary Hyperparathyroidism · 2022 P1 Q81

Q398. The first line investigation for diagnostic evaluation of patients with hypercalcemia is

1. 24-hour urinary calcium excretion
2. Serum phosphate levels
3. Serum iPTH levels
4. Serum vitamin D levels

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 162  ·  Rapid Revision — page 332

Primary Hyperparathyroidism · 2024 P1 Q50

Q399. A patient presents with history of 'bones, stones and abdominal groans' — due to generalized aches and pains and renal calculus colic. Which is the most discriminatory blood investigation?

1. Parathyroid hormone assay
2. Thyroid function tests (free T3, free T4, TSH)
3. Cortisol levels
4. Insulin and C-peptide levels

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 294  ·  Rapid Revision — page 332

Primary Hyperparathyroidism · 2024 P1 Q57

Q400. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for management of severe hypercalcemia ?

1. Intravenous infusion of pamidronate
2. Oral phosphate supplementation
3. Intravenous infusion of normal saline
4. Hemodialysis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 296  ·  Rapid Revision — page 332

Hyperprolactinemia · 2020 P1 Q62

Q401. All the following can cause Hyperprolactinemia, EXCEPT:

1. Craniopharyngioma
2. Hyperthyroidism
3. Stress
4. Chronic renal failure

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 23  ·  Rapid Revision — page 333

Hyperprolactinemia · 2022 P2 Q62

Q402. Which of the following are the clinical features of hyperprolactinemia? 1. Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism 2. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism 3. Oligomenorrhea 4. Heavy menstruation Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3
2. 1 and 4
3. 2 and 3
4. 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 193  ·  Rapid Revision — page 333

Raas · 2024 P1 Q46

Q403. Which one of the following is a cause of Secondary Hyperaldosteronism ?

1. Adrenal adenoma secreting aldosterone
2. Idiopathic bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
3. 11-deoxycorticosterone secreting adrenal tumour
4. Inadequate renal perfusion due to renal artery stenosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 292  ·  Rapid Revision — page 337

Siadh · 2025 P1 Q25

Q404. Which one of the following is correct regarding arginine vasopressin antagonist Tolvaptan?

1. It is useful in hypovolemic hyponatremia
2. It antagonises the V₁ receptor
3. It should be used for at least 1 year
4. It is an oral drug

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 378  ·  Rapid Revision — page 340

Diagnostic Approach to Hyponatremia · 2024 P1 Q58

Q405. Which of the following are used in calculating the serum osmolality? 1. Serum sodium 2. Glucose 3. Calcium 4. Blood urea nitrogen Select the correct answer using the code below

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 296  ·  Rapid Revision — page 340

Diagnostic Approach to Hyponatremia · 2024 P2 Q38

Q406. Which of the following are approximate daily requirements of the common electrolytes in an adult? 1. Sodium 50–90 mM/day 2. Calcium 1 mM/day 3. Potassium 50 mM/day 4. Magnesium 1 mM/day Select the correct answer using the code below.

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 332  ·  Rapid Revision — page 340

Metabolic Acidosis · 2021 P1 Q68

Q407. The most common acid-base disturbance in critically ill patients is:

1. Chronic respiratory acidosis
2. Chronic respiratory alkalosis
3. Chronic metabolic acidosis
4. Chronic metabolic alkalosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 90  ·  Rapid Revision — page 341

Metabolic Acidosis · 2021 P1 Q112

Q408. A 4-year-old boy presents with ingestion of many tablets of salicylate. Which one of the following complications is he likely to develop?

1. Hyperkalemia
2. Rhabdomyolysis
3. Prolonged QRS complex in ECG
4. Metabolic acidosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 102  ·  Rapid Revision — page 341

Metabolic Acidosis · 2022 P1 Q111

Q409. In a child with high anion gap metabolic acidosis, poisoning with which of the following may be suspected?

1. Iron
2. Digoxin
3. Rifampicin
4. Beta blockers

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 170  ·  Rapid Revision — page 341

Metabolic Acidosis · 2023 P2 Q40

Q410. Ischemia-Reperfusion syndrome is characterized by:

1. Hypoxia and activation of inflammation
2. Thromboembolic angiopathy
3. Acute mesenteric thrombosis
4. Build-up of bicarbonate and Na+ ions

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 252  ·  Rapid Revision — page 341

Metabolic Acidosis · 2025 P2 Q13

Q411. Good measure of systemic perfusion by ABG is by measurement of:

1. Bicarbonate
2. pH
3. Lactate and / or the base deficit
4. PCO₂

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 422  ·  Rapid Revision — page 341

Understanding Low-Volume Erythrocytosis · 2023 P1 Q63

Q412. Which one of the following is a cause of relative erythrocytosis?

1. High altitude
2. Cardiorespiratory disease
3. High-affinity hemoglobins
4. Diuretics

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 223  ·  Rapid Revision — page 342

Understanding Low-Volume Erythrocytosis · 2025 P1 Q41

Q413. Which one of the following causes low-volume erythrocytosis ?

1. Polycythemia Rubra Vera
2. Exogenous testosterone therapy
3. Gaisbock’s syndrome
4. High altitude

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 384  ·  Rapid Revision — page 342

Polycythemia Vera (PV) · 2023 P1 Q89

Q414. Which one of the following is a clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder in which phenotypically normal red blood cells, granulocytes and platelets accumulate in the absence of a recognizable physiological stimulus?

1. Mastocytosis
2. Polycythemia vera
3. Primary myelofibrosis
4. Essential thrombocytosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 231  ·  Rapid Revision — page 342

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2020 P1 Q58

Q415. Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding the thyroid function/disorder in pregnancy?

1. There is an increase in the metabolism of thyroxine by placenta
2. Hyperemesis gravidarum may be associated with thyrotoxicosis in pregnancy
3. Levothyroxine replacement therapy dose should be decreased by 30–50% early in pregnancy
4. Impaired cognitive development may be seen in the offspring of mother with subclinical hypothyroidism

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 22

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2020 P1 Q60

Q416. A young lady presents in outdoor clinic with complaints of menstrual irregularity, weight gain, hair loss, tiredness and weakness. What will be the investigation of choice?

1. FSH & LH level
2. Estrogen level
3. Free T3 and free T4 level
4. Free T4 and TSH level

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 22

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2021 P1 Q64

Q417. Which of the following are correct regarding hypothyroidism? 1. It is more common in females. 2. Autoimmunity is a rare etiopathogenesis. 3. In pregnancy, increased dose of levothyroxine is required. 4. Suppressed TSH is a risk factor for osteoporosis. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 88

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2021 P1 Q66

Q418. A 42-year-old lady presents with tiredness, constipation, impaired hearing and weight gain in spite of poor appetite. Which of the following are relevant investigations in this case? 1. TSH level 2. Free T4 levels (unbound T4) 3. Anti-TPO antibodies 4. Radionuclide scan of the thyroid Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 88

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P1 Q40

Q419. Consider the following pharmacological agents: 1. Liothyronine 2. Levothyroxine 3. Carbimazole 4. Sodium ipodate. Which of the above may be included in the treatment of myxedema coma? 1. Liothyronine 2. Levothyroxine 3. Carbimazole 4. Sodium ipodate Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 216

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P1 Q52

Q420. With regard to management of hypothyroidism, consider the following statements: 1. Treatment is with levothyroxine replacement. 2. It is taken as a single daily dose. 3. Average dose is 1.6 μg/kg/day. 4. Full dose per weight should be started in those with coronary artery disease. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 294

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2020 P1 Q63

Q421. All the following can be seen in the case of thyrotoxicosis, EXCEPT:

1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Periodic paralysis
3. Deafness
4. Osteoporosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 24

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2020 P1 Q66

Q422. Consider the following statements with regard to Graves’ ophthalmopathy: 1. Proptosis is often asymmetric and can even appear to be unilateral 2. It is a clinical diagnosis 3. Worsening of symptoms upon glucocorticoid withdrawal is common 4. Radiation therapy is very effective in treatment Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 24

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2020 P2 Q8

Q423. Medical management of thyrotoxic crisis includes all of the following EXCEPT:

1. IV fluids
2. IV propranolol
3. IV hydrocortisone
4. IV antibiotics

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 41

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2022 P1 Q78

Q424. A Thyroid Function Test report shows: TSH – Undetectable, T3 – Raised, T4 – Raised. Which one of the following will be the most likely interpretation?

1. Hypothyroidism secondary to pituitary disease
2. Transient thyroiditis in evolution
3. Primary thyrotoxicosis
4. Overtreatment of hypothyroidism with Liothyronine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 161

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P1 Q39

Q425. Consider the following pharmacological agents: 1. Propranolol 2. Sodium ipodate 3. Propylthiouracil 4. Liothyronine. Which of the above can be used for the treatment of thyrotoxic crisis? 1. Propranolol 2. Sodium ipodate 3. Propylthiouracil 4. Liothyronine Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 216

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P1 Q51

Q426. With regard to treatment of thyrotoxicosis of Grave’s disease, consider the following statements: 1. Propylthiouracil is suitable in breastfeeding patients. 2. Large goitre is an indication for thyroidectomy. 3. Radioiodine is recommended for management in pregnancy. 4. Agranulocytosis is a complication associated with carbimazole. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 294

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2025 P1 Q80

Q427. A 28-year female presented to emergency with fever, agitation and delirium, on regular Carbimazole 40 mg daily but missed doses for 2 days. Which scoring system would you use to assess severity of disease?

1. DAS 28 score
2. Burch-Wartofsky score
3. Expanded Disability Status Scale
4. Sequential Organ Failure Assessment Score

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 399

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P1 Q38

Q428. Iodine has complex effects on thyroid function. Very high concentrations of iodine inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis and release. This effect is known as:

1. Wolff-Chaikoff effect
2. Jod-Basedow effect
3. reverse Wolff-Chaikoff effect
4. reverse Jod-Basedow effect

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 215

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P1 Q43

Q429. Low serum thyroglobulin levels are seen in:

1. thyrotoxicosis factitia
2. subacute thyroiditis
3. Graves’ disease
4. toxic multinodular goitre

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 216

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P1 Q47

Q430. Which one of the following diseases is characterized by destructive lymphoid infiltration of the thyroid gland leading to fibrosis and enlargement with an increased risk of developing thyroid lymphoma?

1. de Quervain’s Thyroiditis
2. Multinodular Goitre
3. Riedel’s thyroiditis
4. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 293

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2021 P2 Q8

Q431. A 25-year-old female with previous history of neck irradiation presents with thyroid swelling for 6 months. Clinically euthyroid; right lobe enlarged with ipsilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. The most probable diagnosis is:

1. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
2. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
3. Lymphoma
4. Follicular carcinoma thyroid

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 109

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2022 P2 Q8

Q432. Which of the following statements regarding papillary thyroid cancer are correct? 1. It is the most common malignant tumour of the thyroid gland. 2. It is more common in young females. 3. It has a propensity for hematogenous spread. 4. Distant metastases are uncommon. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 175

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2022 P1 Q40

Q433. Which of the following constitute differential diagnosis of hypocalcemia? 1. Hypomagnesemia 2. Chronic alcoholism 3. Pseudohypoparathyroidism 4. Paget’s disease Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 151

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2022 P1 Q80

Q434. Which of the following statements are correct about treatment with vitamin D supplement? 1. Serum calcium levels improve earlier than serum PTH levels. 2. Patients should be closely observed with serial vitamin D levels as vitamin D toxicity occurs frequently. 3. Vitamin D supplementation should always be in conjunction with calcium supplementation. 4. Nephrolithiasis is a known complication. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 162

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2022 P1 Q81

Q435. The first line investigation for diagnostic evaluation of patients with hypercalcemia is:

1. 24-hour urinary calcium excretion
2. Serum phosphate levels
3. Serum iPTH levels
4. Serum vitamin D levels

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 162

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P1 Q50

Q436. A patient presents with history of ‘bones, stones and abdominal groans’ — due to generalized aches and pains and renal calculus colic. Which is the most discriminatory blood investigation?

1. Parathyroid hormone assay
2. Thyroid function tests (free T3, free T4, TSH)
3. Cortisol levels
4. Insulin and C-peptide levels

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 294

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P1 Q57

Q437. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for management of severe hypercalcemia?

1. Intravenous infusion of pamidronate
2. Oral phosphate supplementation
3. Intravenous infusion of normal saline
4. Hemodialysis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 296

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P1 Q47

Q438. A 27-year-old lady underwent thyroidectomy for thyroid carcinoma. Post-operatively she developed muscle cramps, perioral and peripheral paresthesia, and carpopedal spasm. Which intervention is appropriate?

1. Nerve conduction velocity in both limbs and administer methylcobalamin
2. EMG of both lower limbs and administer oral prednisolone
3. Measure serum ionized calcium and administer IV calcium gluconate
4. Measure serum bicarbonate and administer IV bicarbonate

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 218

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2025 P2 Q3

Q439. A 45-year-old lady presents with fatigue, muscle weakness and bilateral multiple renal calculi on ultrasound; serum calcium 11.4 mg%. What is the next best investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?

1. MRI neck
2. Sestamibi scan
3. CECT head and neck
4. NCCT head and neck

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 417

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2020 P1 Q65

Q440. Consider the following disorders as constituents of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2a (MEN 2a): 1. Primary Hyperparathyroidism 2. Pituitary tumours 3. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid 4. Pheochromocytoma Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 24

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2020 P2 Q39

Q441. Which one of the following is NOT correct regarding MEN-1 syndrome?

1. It involves parathyroid glands
2. It involves pancreas
3. It involves pituitary gland
4. It involves pineal gland

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 48

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2020 P1 Q62

Q442. All the following can cause Hyperprolactinemia, EXCEPT:

1. Craniopharyngioma
2. Hyperthyroidism
3. Stress
4. Chronic renal failure

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 23

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2022 P2 Q62

Q443. Which of the following are the clinical features of hyperprolactinemia? 1. Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism 2. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism 3. Oligomenorrhea 4. Heavy menstruation Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3
2. 1 and 4
3. 2 and 3
4. 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 193

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P1 Q42

Q444. Functioning pituitary adenoma most commonly arises from which one of the following cells?

1. Somatotroph
2. Lactotroph
3. Corticotroph
4. Thyrotroph

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 216

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P1 Q46

Q445. A 50-year lady, a known case of rheumatoid arthritis, presents with obesity, moon facies, abdominal striae, and hypertension. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test shows cortisol > 50 nmol/L, ACTH < 1.1 pmol/L. The likely diagnosis is:

1. Cushing’s disease
2. ectopic ACTH-secreting tumour
3. exogenous glucocorticoid use
4. adrenal adenoma

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 217

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P1 Q49

Q446. Which of the following are correct regarding Cortisol? 1. Levels are highest in the morning on waking. 2. Cortisol falls dramatically during an illness. 3. More than 95% circulating cortisol is protein bound. 4. It is the major glucocorticoid in humans and can also activate mineralocorticoid receptors. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 3 and 4
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 293

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P1 Q46

Q447. Which one of the following is a cause of Secondary Hyperaldosteronism?

1. Adrenal adenoma secreting aldosterone
2. Idiopathic bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
3. 11-deoxycorticosterone secreting adrenal tumour
4. Inadequate renal perfusion due to renal artery stenosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 292

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2021 P1 Q67

Q448. A patient presents with circulatory shock, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. Acute adrenal crisis is considered; cortisol sample stored and treatment started without delay. Which interventions are appropriate? 1. IV normal saline 2. IV hydrocortisone 100 mg stat 3. IV 10% glucose 4. IV KCl as infusion Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 89

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2025 P1 Q45

Q449. Under which one of the following conditions is HPA axis suppression likely to result in crisis due to adrenal insufficiency following withdrawal of glucocorticoids?

1. If glucocorticoids have been given by intravenous route for five days
2. If glucocorticoids have been administered orally for one week
3. If glucocorticoids have been prescribed repeatedly within the previous year
4. If the dose is less than equivalent of 5 mg prednisolone per day

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 386

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2021 P1 Q63

Q450. Hirsutism is seen in which of the following? 1. Polycystic ovarian syndrome 2. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Ovarian tumour Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 88

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2022 P1 Q41

Q451. Which of the following are useful for the treatment of Hirsutism? 1. Amiloride 2. Oestrogen 3. Finasteride 4. Spironolactone Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 152

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P1 Q37

Q452. GnRH deficiency with hyposmia is typically seen in:

1. Kallmann syndrome
2. Bardet-Biedl syndrome
3. Prader-Willi syndrome
4. Wallenberg syndrome

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 215

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P1 Q48

Q453. Which one of the following is an example of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

1. Kallmann’s syndrome
2. Klinefelter’s syndrome
3. Turner’s syndrome
4. Cryptorchidism

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 218

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2022 P1 Q38

Q454. Which of the following statements are correct regarding short stature? 1. Linear bone growth rates are pituitary dependent 2. Normal bone age in a child with short stature suggests hormonal disorder 3. Final height in boys can be estimated by adding 6.5 cm to mid-parental height 4. Replacement therapy with recombinant GH restores growth velocity in GH-deficient children Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 151

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2020 P1 Q61

Q455. Consider the following statements about erectile dysfunction in diabetic males: (a) It affects 60% of males (b) Its common cause is an underlying neuro-vascular pathology (c) It may be aggravated by beta-adrenergic agonist drugs (d) Endocrine disorders like hyperprolactinemia may cause it. Which of the statements is true?

1. It affects 60% of males
2. Its common cause is an underlying neuro-vascular pathology
3. It may be aggravated by beta-adrenergic agonist drugs
4. Endocrine disorders like hyperprolactinemia may cause it

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 23

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2020 P1 Q21

Q456. Which one of the following is NOT true about Ghrelin?

1. It stimulates appetite
2. It decreases gastric emptying
3. It increases acid secretion
4. Fasting increases its secretion

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 12

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2020 P1 Q64

Q457. Which one of the following hormones acts via the receptor tyrosine kinase?

1. FSH
2. TSH
3. IGF-1
4. PTH

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 24

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2021 P1 Q69

Q458. Which of the following are the potentially reversible causes of weight gain? 1. Insulinoma 2. Cushing’s syndrome 3. Sulfonylureas 4. Beta-blockers Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 90

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P1 Q92

Q459. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to glucose homeostasis? 1. Insulin level rises postprandially. 2. Major portion of postprandial glucose is used by skeletal muscle. 3. Brain uses glucose in an insulin-dependent manner. 4. Glucagon is secreted during exercise. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 307

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P1 Q93

Q460. Consider the following pancreatic hormones: 1. Insulin 2. Islet amyloid polypeptide (amylin) 3. Glucagon 4. Somatostatin. Which of the above is/are secreted by beta cells of the pancreatic islets? 1. Insulin 2. Islet amyloid polypeptide or amylin 3. Glucagon 4. Somatostatin Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 2
4. 1 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 307

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P1 Q54

Q461. Which of the following findings are seen in Diabetic Retinopathy on fundus examination? 1. Microaneurysm 2. Dot and blot hemorrhage 3. Retinal thickening 4. Neovascularization Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 295

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2022 P1 Q79

Q462. Which of the following biochemical abnormalities is seen in severe hypertriglyceridemia?

1. Pseudohyponatremia
2. Metabolic alkalosis
3. Hyperuricemia
4. Hyperkalemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 162

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P1 Q56

Q463. Which of the following is an inhibitor of the intestinal mucosal transporter NPC1L1, responsible for the absorption of dietary and biliary cholesterol?

1. Atorvastatin
2. Fenofibrate
3. Metformin
4. Ezetimibe

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 296

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2021 P1 Q65

Q464. Which of the following are correct regarding Diabetes insipidus? 1. Polyuria and polydipsia are common symptoms. 2. Urine is of low osmolality and specific gravity. 3. Lithium is useful in treatment. 4. It is potentially lethal, if hypothalamic thirst centre is damaged. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 88

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2025 P1 Q25

Q465. Which one of the following is correct regarding the arginine vasopressin antagonist Tolvaptan?

1. It is useful in hypovolemic hyponatremia
2. It antagonises the V₁ receptor
3. It should be used for at least 1 year
4. It is an oral drug

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 378

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P1 Q58

Q466. Which of the following are used in calculating the serum osmolality? 1. Serum sodium 2. Glucose 3. Calcium 4. Blood urea nitrogen Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 296

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P2 Q38

Q467. Which of the following are approximate daily requirements of the common electrolytes in an adult? 1. Sodium 50–90 mM/day 2. Calcium 1 mM/day 3. Potassium 50 mM/day 4. Magnesium 1 mM/day Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 332

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2021 P1 Q68

Q468. The most common acid-base disturbance in critically ill patients is:

1. Chronic respiratory acidosis
2. Chronic respiratory alkalosis
3. Chronic metabolic acidosis
4. Chronic metabolic alkalosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 90

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2021 P1 Q112

Q469. A 4-year-old boy presents with ingestion of many tablets of salicylate. Which one of the following complications is he likely to develop?

1. Hyperkalemia
2. Rhabdomyolysis
3. Prolonged QRS complex in ECG
4. Metabolic acidosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 102

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2022 P1 Q111

Q470. In a child with high anion gap metabolic acidosis, poisoning with which of the following may be suspected?

1. Iron
2. Digoxin
3. Rifampicin
4. Beta blockers

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 170

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P2 Q40

Q471. Ischemia-Reperfusion syndrome is characterized by:

1. Hypoxia and activation of inflammation
2. Thromboembolic angiopathy
3. Acute mesenteric thrombosis
4. Build-up of bicarbonate and Na+ ions

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 252

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2025 P2 Q13

Q472. Good measure of systemic perfusion by ABG is by measurement of:

1. Bicarbonate
2. pH
3. Lactate and / or the base deficit
4. PCO₂

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 422

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2022 P1 Q90

Q473. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of vitamin D? 1. Skin exposure to sunlight is the main source 2. Deficiency of vitamin D causes distal muscle weakness 3. Vitamin D synthesis decreases in winter, as one moves away from the equator 4. Body store accumulated during summer is consumed during winter Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 164

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P1 Q62

Q474. Which of the following abnormalities occur from vitamin D deficiency in children? 1. Craniotabes 2. Bossing of frontal and parietal bones 3. Muscle hypotonia 4. Shrinking of epiphysis at the lower end of radius Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 223

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2024 P1 Q70

Q475. Consider the following statements with regard to Vitamin D deficiency: 1. Vitamin D deficiency is common in northern latitudes. 2. Vitamin D deficiency is more likely to develop in people with dark skin. 3. Exposure to UV light is advisable in patients with Vitamin D deficiency. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 300

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2022 P1 Q89

Q476. Consider the following statements with regard to vitamin C: 1. It is heat stable. 2. Normal platelets are poor in ascorbate. 3. Perifollicular hyperkeratosis is a clinical sign of scurvy. 4. Infants fed exclusively on boiled milk are vitamin C deficient. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 4
4. 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 164

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2022 P1 Q94

Q477. An elderly alcoholic man who mainly eats maize and maize products presents with chronic diarrhea, severe sunburn-like lesions on exposed parts, and acute delirium. What is the likely diagnosis and its treatment?

1. Celiac disease, Gluten-free diet
2. Vitamin B12 deficiency, Parenteral B12 therapy
3. Pellagra, Niacin therapy
4. Whipple’s disease, Doxycycline + Trimethoprim

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 165

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2025 P1 Q54

Q478. A 36-year-old man presents with decreased appetite, mouth soreness, diarrhoea and irritability. On examination he has a bright red tongue with a pigmented scaly rash around the neck. Which one of the following food items in his diet has a bearing on his disease?

1. Rice
2. Wheat
3. Corn
4. Fish

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 390

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2025 P1 Q56

Q479. Consider the following statements with regard to the treatment of vitamin A deficiency: I. Repeated high doses of retinol can cause liver damage and teratogenicity II. Acute overdose of vitamin A may lead to increased intracranial pressure and skin desquamation III. Regular vitamin A supplementation is also recommended for pregnant women even in countries where vitamin A deficiency is not endemic IV. Excessive intake of carotene may cause harmless orange pigmentation of the skin Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 390

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P1 Q84

Q480. Carotenoderma, due to ingestion of excessive amounts of carotene-containing fruits and vegetables, can be distinguished from jaundice by sparing of which of the following?

1. Palms
2. Soles
3. Nasolabial folds
4. Sclerae

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 230

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2021 P1 Q23

Q481. Consider the following statements with regard to “Anorexia of Aging”: 1. Declining chemosensory function (smell and taste) 2. Reduced efficiency of chewing 3. Slowed gastric emptying 4. Alterations in the neuro-endocrine axis Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 77

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P1 Q63

Q482. Which one of the following is a cause of relative erythrocytosis?

1. High altitude
2. Cardiorespiratory disease
3. High-affinity hemoglobins
4. Diuretics

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 223

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2025 P1 Q41

Q483. Which one of the following causes low-volume erythrocytosis?

1. Polycythemia Rubra Vera
2. Exogenous testosterone therapy
3. Gaisbock’s syndrome
4. High altitude

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 384

Endocrine, Metabolism & Nutrition · 2023 P1 Q89

Q484. Which one of the following is a clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder in which phenotypically normal red blood cells, granulocytes and platelets accumulate in the absence of a recognizable physiological stimulus?

1. Mastocytosis
2. Polycythemia vera
3. Primary myelofibrosis
4. Essential thrombocytosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 231

Psychiatry · 2024 P1 Q86

Q485. Which of the following are First Rank Symptoms of acute schizophrenia? 1. Auditory hallucinations 2. Broadcasting of thoughts 3. Delusional perceptions 4. Delirium Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 305

Psychiatry · 2025 P2 Q53

Q486. Which one of the following is correct regarding postpartum psychosis?

1. There is often no family history of psychosis.
2. Its onset is usually within 4 days of delivery.
3. Recurrence rate in subsequent pregnancy is 60–70%.
4. Electroconvulsive therapy is the first treatment of choice.

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 442

Psychiatry · 2022 P1 Q93

Q487. Which of the following are used as mood stabilizers for treatment of bipolar disorder? 1. Valproic acid 2. Lamotrigine 3. Carbamazepine 4. Propranolol Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 164

Psychiatry · 2024 P1 Q83

Q488. Long term treatment of bipolar disorder with lithium carbonate can cause which of the following adverse effects? 1. Weight loss 2. Hypothyroidism 3. Increased levels of parathyroid hormone 4. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 304

Psychiatry · 2024 P1 Q89

Q489. Which of the following are classified as mood-stabilizing psychotropic drugs? 1. Lithium 2. Valproate 3. Lamotrigine Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 306

Psychiatry · 2021 P1 Q85

Q490. Which of the following are tricyclic antidepressants? 1. Amitriptyline 2. Dosulepin 3. Paroxetine 4. Imipramine Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 94

Psychiatry · 2024 P1 Q84

Q491. Which of the following antidepressant drugs act by inhibition of monoamine oxidase? 1. Phenelzine 2. Tranylcypromine 3. Dosulepin 4. Moclobemide Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 304

Psychiatry · 2024 P1 Q85

Q492. Which of the following are selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors? 1. Escitalopram 2. Amitriptyline 3. Fluoxetine 4. Sertraline Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 305

Psychiatry · 2021 P1 Q86

Q493. Recurrent bouts of binge eating are usually associated with:

1. Bulimia nervosa
2. Anorexia nervosa
3. Post-partum depression
4. Personality disorder

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 95

Psychiatry · 2023 P1 Q91

Q494. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to anorexia nervosa? 1. The illness is often precipitated by weight loss. 2. Food avoidance is common. 3. Body image is intact, and there is no fear of weight gain. 4. Downy hair (lanugo) may develop on the back, forearms, and cheeks. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 231

Psychiatry · 2023 P2 Q14

Q495. Which of the following are correct regarding Trichobezoar? 1. It is a hair ball in the stomach. 2. It is common in psychiatric patients. 3. Common complications are bleeding, perforation, or obstruction. 4. Treated with a long course of proton pump inhibitors. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 244

Psychiatry · 2020 P1 Q67

Q496. All of the following are common etiologies of delirium EXCEPT:

1. Hyperthyroidism
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Hyperparathyroidism
4. Hypoparathyroidism

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 25

Psychiatry · 2025 P1 Q67

Q497. The 4A Test is a screening tool for detection of delirium. Which of the following parameters are included in the 4AT tool? I. Alertness II. Apnoea III. Abbreviated Mental Test (AMT4) IV. Attention Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 395

Psychiatry · 2021 P1 Q38

Q498. Which one of the following is the single strongest risk factor for dementia?

1. Increasing age
2. Alcoholism
3. Positive family history
4. Systemic illness

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 80

Psychiatry · 2021 P1 Q40

Q499. Visual hallucination is characteristic of which type of dementia?

1. Diffuse Lewy body dementia
2. Frontotemporal dementia
3. Alzheimer’s dementia
4. Vascular dementia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 81

Psychiatry · 2023 P1 Q54

Q500. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) includes which of the following? 1. Asymptomatic neurocognitive disorder 2. Minor neurocognitive disorder 3. HIV-associated dementia Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 220

Psychiatry · 2024 P1 Q88

Q501. Which of the following are inherited causes of dementia? 1. Alzheimer’s disease 2. Huntington’s disease 3. Wilson’s disease 4. Punch-drunk syndrome Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 306

Psychiatry · 2025 P1 Q62

Q502. Which of the following are causes of reversible dementia? I. Hypothyroidism II. Vitamin B12 deficiency III. Dementia with Lewy body IV. Thiamine deficiency Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 393

Psychiatry · 2025 P1 Q63

Q503. Which of the following are clinical features of Fronto-Temporal dementia? I. Personality change II. Language disturbance III. Memory may be preserved in early stages IV. Anti-cholinesterase are the drug of choice for treatment Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 393

Psychiatry · 2025 P1 Q83

Q504. Which of the following are features of Alzheimer’s disease? I. It is a disorder of cerebral cortical function II. Only short-term memory is affected III. Patients deny that there is anything wrong IV. Depression is commonly present Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 401

Orthopaedics · 2020 P2 Q26

Q505. The most common site for osteosarcoma is:

1. Proximal femur
2. Distal femur
3. Proximal humerus
4. Distal humerus

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 44

Orthopaedics · 2020 P2 Q35

Q506. Kohler’s disease is avascular necrosis of:

1. Lunate
2. Capitellum of humerus
3. 1st metatarsal head
4. Navicular

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 46

Orthopaedics · 2024 P2 Q32

Q507. Which of the features given below are benefits of fracture treatment? 1. Pain relief 2. Prevention of infection 3. Anaesthesia 4. Restoration of anatomy Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 3 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 330

Orthopaedics · 2024 P2 Q34

Q508. Hangman’s fracture is:

1. traumatic spondylolisthesis of atlas vertebra (C1)
2. traumatic spondylolisthesis of axis vertebra (C2)
3. traumatic spondylolisthesis of thoracic vertebra (T1)
4. traumatic spondylolisthesis of lumbar vertebra (L1)

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 331

Orthopaedics · 2025 P2 Q19

Q509. Which of the following statements are correct regarding ABCDE of trauma care? I. A stands for Airway with cervical spine protection II. B stands for Breathing and ventilation III. C stands for Control of massive external haemorrhage IV. D stands for Disability (Neurological status) Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, III and IV
3. I, II and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 424

Orthopaedics · 2024 P1 Q76

Q510. Heberden’s nodes are present mainly in:

1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Osteoarthritis
3. Psoriatic arthritis
4. Gouty arthritis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 302

Orthopaedics · 2025 P1 Q61

Q511. Which of the following joints are commonly affected in osteoarthritis? I. First metatarsophalangeal joint II. Proximal interphalangeal joint III. Ankle joint IV. 5th and 6th cervical vertebrae joint Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I and II only
2. III and IV only
3. I, II and IV only
4. I, II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 392

Orthopaedics · 2024 P2 Q26

Q512. A 40-year-old lady complains of progressive deformities of her hands and fingers with stiffness present in both hands that improves as the day progresses. There is symmetrical involvement with flexion and ulnar deviation at the metacarpophalangeal joints. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. Osteoarthritis
2. Ankylosing spondylitis
3. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Tenosynovitis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 327

Orthopaedics · 2022 P1 Q50

Q513. Which of the following can be used to monitor disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis? 1. Pain (visual analogue scale) 2. X-Ray of hands and wrists 3. DAS 28 score 4. ESR Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 154

Orthopaedics · 2024 P1 Q81

Q514. Anti-citrullinated peptide antibody is useful in diagnosis of:

1. Rheumatoid arthritis
2. Sjogren’s syndrome
3. Scleroderma
4. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 304

Orthopaedics · 2024 P2 Q27

Q515. A 52-year-old female complains of increasing pain in the right shoulder and increasing difficulty doing overhead abduction. She was diagnosed diabetic 20 years back and is on treatment since. What is the most likely cause?

1. Rotator cuff tear
2. Frozen shoulder
3. Bacterial arthritis
4. Osteoarthritis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 328

Orthopaedics · 2022 P1 Q49

Q516. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is associated with which of the following features? 1. Pain and tingling in hands at night 2. Weakness of thumb abduction 3. Loss of sensation over the lateral half of the palm 4. Atrophy of hypothenar eminence Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 153

Orthopaedics · 2020 P2 Q102

Q517. Which one of the following is the antibiotic of choice for the prevention of Rheumatic heart disease?

1. Benzathine Benzyl Penicillin
2. Procaine Penicillin
3. Doxycycline
4. Ciprofloxacin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 63

Orthopaedics · 2024 P1 Q5

Q518. Which of the following are major criteria under the Jones Criteria for Acute Rheumatic Fever? 1. Chorea 2. Erythema Marginatum 3. Subcutaneous Nodules 4. Polyarthralgia Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 278

Orthopaedics · 2025 P1 Q3

Q519. Which one of the following statements is correct for subcutaneous nodules in Rheumatic fever?

1. They are present over flexor aspect of forearm
2. They are painful tender nodules
3. The usual size of these nodules is 3-5 cm
4. They typically appear more than 3 weeks after onset of other clinical manifestations

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 367

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2020 P1 Q71

Q520. Cryptococcal infection is acquired through:

1. Inhalation route
2. Bite of Culex mosquito
3. Direct skin contact
4. Ingestion of spores

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 26

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2020 P1 Q74

Q521. Echinocandins are a class of:

1. Antiviral agents
2. Antiparasitic agents
3. Antitubercular agents
4. Antifungal agents

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 27

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2021 P1 Q78

Q522. Consider the following statements with regard to Amphotericin B: 1. It is a narrow spectrum antifungal agent. 2. It can cause nephrotoxicity. 3. It lacks an oral preparation. 4. Its lipid formulations are less toxic. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 93

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2021 P1 Q79

Q523. Which one of the following molds causes mucormycosis, commonly known as ‘black fungus’?

1. Rhizopus
2. Aspergillus
3. Candida
4. Histoplasma

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 93

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2023 P1 Q75

Q524. Which of the following opportunistic systemic mycoses is characterized by rapid development of severe tissue necrosis and emerged as a specific complication associated with COVID-19 infection in India?

1. Histoplasmosis
2. Mucormycosis
3. Coccidioidomycosis
4. Sporotrichosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 226

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2023 P1 Q76

Q525. Which of the following fungal infections is caused by dermal inoculation of the fungal agent, usually from a thorn?

1. Mycetoma
2. Aspergillosis
3. Mucormycosis
4. Sporotrichosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 227

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2023 P1 Q77

Q526. Consider the following statements with regard to coccidioidomycosis: 1. It is a primary systemic mycosis caused by dimorphic fungi Coccidioides immitis and Coccidioides posadasii. 2. Primary pulmonary coccidioidomycosis presents with cough, fever, chest pain, and arthritis. 3. Progressive pulmonary coccidioidomycosis presents with constitutional symptoms and features of lobar pneumonia. 4. Coccidioides meningitis is a mild disease, not warranting any treatment. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 227

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2025 P1 Q53

Q527. A 56-year-old gardener presents with an ulcerative nodule with purulent discharge on his right index finger. He had a prick with a thorn at the same site around a month back. Which one of the following infections is most likely?

1. Chromoblastomycosis
2. Mycetoma
3. Phaeohyphomycosis
4. Sporotrichosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 389

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2020 P1 Q72

Q528. Which one of the following is NOT appropriate treatment for Echinococcus granulosus and hydatid disease?

1. Albendazole 400 mg twice a day for 3 months
2. Diethylcarbamazine 2 mg/kg thrice a day for 12 days
3. PAIR (percutaneous puncture, aspiration, injection of scolicide, re-aspiration)
4. Praziquantel (20 mg/kg twice daily for 14 days)

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 26

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2021 P1 Q77

Q529. Pulmonary stage is seen in which of the following infections? 1. Ascaris lumbricoides 2. Strongyloides stercoralis 3. Onchocerca volvulus Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 93

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2023 P1 Q55

Q530. Consider the following statements with regard to cysticercosis: 1. It may present as a personality change. 2. Subcutaneous nodule may be excised for histology. 3. Cerebral signs commonly do not occur until the larvae die, 5–20 years later. 4. Praziquantel can be given for 10 days. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 220

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2023 P1 Q56

Q531. Consider the following statements with regard to strongyloidiasis: 1. It parasitizes the mucosa of the upper part of the small intestine. 2. Larva currens is a fast-moving transient rash seen across the abdomen and buttocks. 3. Ivermectin is not an effective treatment. 4. Systemic strongyloidiasis is seen in the immunocompetent state. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 220

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2023 P1 Q57

Q532. Consider the following statements with regard to cutaneous larva migrans: 1. It is one of the commonest linear lesions seen in travelers. 2. It may be associated with a recent visit to a beach. 3. It is non-pruritic. 4. Track moves across the skin at a rate of 2-3 cm/day. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 221

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2023 P1 Q74

Q533. Which one of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of schistosomiasis?

1. Doxycycline
2. Praziquantel
3. Albendazole
4. Ivermectin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 226

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2024 P1 Q63

Q534. Which among the following is the first intermediate host for the parasitic fluke Clonorchis sinensis?

1. Dog
2. Snail
3. Encysts on vegetation
4. Sheep

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 297

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2024 P1 Q66

Q535. Which among the following are hepatobiliary flukes (trematodes)? 1. Clonorchis sinensis 2. Mansonella perstans 3. Fasciola hepatica 4. Opisthorchis felineus Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 298

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2024 P1 Q67

Q536. Which among the following parasitic helminths is a nematode and has zoonotic transmission?

1. Taenia saginata
2. Trichinella spiralis
3. Fasciola hepatica
4. Fasciolopsis buski

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 299

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2020 P1 Q15

Q537. The GeneXpert test used for MTB detection has the additional advantage of detection of which of the following?

1. INH resistance
2. Rifampicin resistance
3. Multi drug resistance
4. Ethambutol resistance

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 10

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2020 P1 Q75

Q538. Recommended first-line drugs for initial treatment of tuberculosis include all EXCEPT:

1. Isoniazid
2. Rifampin
3. Ethambutol
4. Ethionamide

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 27

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2020 P1 Q76

Q539. The most frequent adverse reaction of significance among people treated for drug-susceptible tuberculosis is:

1. Colitis
2. Hepatitis
3. Cystitis
4. Enteritis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 27

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2020 P1 Q77

Q540. All adult patients in whom anti-tubercular treatment is being started should undergo baseline assessment of:

1. Complete blood count
2. Liver function test
3. Lipid profile
4. Pulmonary function Test

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 27

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2020 P1 Q79

Q541. The extrapulmonary sites most commonly involved in tuberculosis are all EXCEPT:

1. Lymph node TB
2. Genitourinary TB
3. Skeletal TB
4. Skull TB

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 27

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2020 P2 Q95

Q542. All of the following are true about Bedaquiline (BDQ) EXCEPT:

1. It specifically targets mycobacterial ATP synthase
2. It is a bacteriostatic drug
3. It has extended half-life
4. It has high volume of tissue distribution

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 62

Microbiology & Infectious Diseases · 2025 P1 Q52

Q543. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding leprosy?

1. Type 1 Leprosy Reaction is also called erythema nodosum leprosum
2. Type 2 Leprosy Reaction is an immune complex mediated syndrome called Arthus phenomenon
3. ‘Lion face’ appearance is seen in tuberculoid leprosy
4. Nose is the last site of involvement in lepromatous leprosy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 388

HIV/AIDS & National AIDS Control (NACO) · 2021 P2 Q93

Q544. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in the first-line ART regimens because of its well-recognized metabolic toxicities?

1. Zidovudine (AZT)
2. Stavudine (d4T)
3. Tenofovir (TDF)
4. Lamivudine (3TC)

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 134

HIV/AIDS & National AIDS Control (NACO) · 2022 P1 Q51

Q545. Which one of the following HIV-associated infections is least likely with CD4 count > 100 cells/mm³?

1. Cerebral toxoplasmosis
2. Tuberculosis
3. Herpes zoster
4. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 154

HIV/AIDS & National AIDS Control (NACO) · 2022 P1 Q82

Q546. Consider the following conditions. Which of the below are causes of lymphadenopathy in an HIV-positive patient? 1. Kaposi’s sarcoma 2. Lymphoma 3. Tuberculosis 4. Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 162

HIV/AIDS & National AIDS Control (NACO) · 2022 P1 Q85

Q547. A 30-year-old male recently diagnosed with HIV presented with odynophagia. He was started on a PPI and upper GI endoscopy showed serpiginous ulcers in normal surrounding mucosa in the distal esophagus. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. Herpes simplex esophagitis
2. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease
3. Cytomegalovirus esophagitis
4. Candida esophagitis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 163

HIV/AIDS & National AIDS Control (NACO) · 2023 P2 Q65

Q548. During delivery of HIV-infected women, which of the following are recommended? 1. Zidovudine (ZDV) is given at the onset of labor. 2. Elective caesarean delivery reduces the risk of vertical transmission. 3. Amniotomy and oxytocin augmentation should be done. 4. Antiretroviral therapy should be given to all neonates. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 258

HIV/AIDS & National AIDS Control (NACO) · 2023 P2 Q108

Q549. In the National Health Policy 2017, a target of 90:90:90 has been set for HIV/AIDS. Which among the following are targets for which a 90% level has been set? 1. Proportion of couples who have safe sex 2. Proportion of people living with HIV who know their HIV status 3. Proportion of adolescents who have access to contraceptives 4. Proportion of people receiving antiretroviral therapy who have viral suppression Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 2 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 271

HIV/AIDS & National AIDS Control (NACO) · 2022 P1 Q104

Q550. According to the National AIDS Control Program, which one of the following drugs is given to newborns born to HIV-positive mothers to prevent mother-to-child transmission?

1. Nevirapine
2. Stavudine
3. Indinavir
4. Ritonavir

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 167

HIV/AIDS & National AIDS Control (NACO) · 2023 P2 Q59

Q551. NACO (National AIDS Control Organization) in India works towards which of the following causes? 1. Screening high-risk cases of HIV 2. Facilitating adoption of orphans 3. Public education towards safe sex 4. Treating HIV cases free of cost Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 256

HIV/AIDS & National AIDS Control (NACO) · 2024 P2 Q119

Q552. NACO provides prepacked colour-coded STI/RTI kits free to its designated clinics. Consider the pairs: (1) Red – Urethral discharge; (2) Green – Vaginitis; (3) White – Inguinal bubo. How many of the pairs given are correctly matched?

1. None of the pairs
2. Only one pair
3. Only two pairs
4. All three pairs

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 364

HIV/AIDS & National AIDS Control (NACO) · 2025 P2 Q120

Q553. Under which name (brand) does the National AIDS Control Organization provide the STI/RTI services?

1. Antara Clinic
2. Chhaya Clinic
3. Sathi Clinic
4. Suraksha Clinic

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 470

Community Medicine & Health Programmes · 2023 P2 Q101

Q554. The cost of implementation of ‘Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana’ is borne by:

1. Central Government only
2. State Government only
3. Both Central Government and State Government
4. Private institutions only as part of their Corporate Social Responsibility

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 269

Community Medicine & Health Programmes · 2025 P2 Q96

Q555. Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, the beneficiaries are provided a minimum package of antenatal care on a fixed day of every month. Which day of the month is specified?

1. 1st day of the month
2. 7th day of the month
3. 9th day of the month
4. 15th day of the month

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 460

Community Medicine & Health Programmes · 2020 P2 Q104

Q556. Under the Employees State Insurance (ESI) Scheme, extended sickness benefit is provided in which of the following infectious diseases? 1. Tuberculosis 2. Leprosy 3. Chronic empyema Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 64

Community Medicine & Health Programmes · 2021 P2 Q114

Q557. Which of the following benefits should be available to insured persons or dependents under the Employees State Insurance Act? 1. Medical benefit 2. Sickness benefit 3. Funeral expenses 4. Rehabilitation allowance Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 138

Community Medicine & Health Programmes · 2023 P2 Q118

Q558. Which among the following are benefits to insured persons or dependents under the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948? 1. Disablement benefit 2. Funeral expenses 3. Maternity benefit 4. Travel benefit Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 274

Community Medicine & Health Programmes · 2025 P2 Q114

Q559. Under the ESI Act 1948, if sickness is duly certified by an Insurance Medical Officer, periodical cash payment (Sickness Benefit) is payable for a maximum of how many days in any continuous period of 365 days?

1. 30 days
2. 61 days
3. 91 days
4. 121 days

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 467

Community Medicine & Health Programmes · 2024 P2 Q2

Q560. Which types of cancer are associated with exposure to ionizing radiation? 1. Leukaemia 2. Lung cancer 3. Breast cancer 4. Lymphoma Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 320

Community Medicine & Health Programmes · 2023 P2 Q94

Q561. With reference to occupational cancers, consider the following statements: 1. Skin cancer is a common occupational hazard in workers in nickel and chromium work. 2. Cancer bladder is an occupational hazard in workers in dye-stuffs and dyeing industry. 3. Leukemia can occur on long exposure to benzol. 4. Lung cancer is typically found in workers in electric cable industries. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 267

Community Medicine & Health Programmes · 2025 P2 Q109

Q562. With which variety of asbestos has Mesothelioma been shown to have a strong association?

1. Amosite
2. Anthophyllite
3. Crocidolite
4. Chrysotile

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 465

Community Medicine & Health Programmes · 2021 P1 Q50

Q563. Which one of the following is a tumour marker for carcinoma of pancreas?

1. Alpha-fetoprotein
2. CA-125
3. Calcitonin
4. CA-19-9

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 84

Pathology & Pharmacology · 2022 P1 Q61

Q564. As per the Gell and Coombs classification, Farmer’s lung is which type of hypersensitivity disease?

1. Type-I
2. Type-II
3. Type-III
4. Type-IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 157

Pathology & Pharmacology · 2024 P1 Q73

Q565. Allergic contact dermatitis is a manifestation of:

1. Type 1 hypersensitivity
2. Type 2 hypersensitivity
3. Type 3 hypersensitivity
4. Type 4 hypersensitivity

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 301

Pathology & Pharmacology · 2020 P1 Q14

Q566. Which one of the following is commonly associated with causation of Farmer’s lungs?

1. Penicillium
2. Actinomycetes
3. Aspergillus
4. Candida

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 10

Pathology & Pharmacology · 2022 P1 Q95

Q567. Which one of the following is an indication for self-injectable adrenaline (epinephrine)?

1. Anaphylaxis to allergens that are difficult to avoid
2. Cardiogenic shock
3. Pheochromocytoma
4. Complete heart block

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 165

Pathology & Pharmacology · 2023 P1 Q92

Q568. Which of the following are adverse effects of loop-acting and thiazide diuretics? 1. Metabolic acidosis 2. Hypovolemia 3. Hyponatremia 4. Hypokalemia Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 232

Pathology & Pharmacology · 2022 P2 Q6

Q569. The ‘gold standard’ for the diagnosis of GERD (Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease) is:

1. upper GI endoscopy
2. barium meal follow-through
3. 24-hour pH recording
4. CT scan

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 175

Pathology & Pharmacology · 2025 P2 Q28

Q570. Which one of the following is considered the gold standard for the diagnosis of oesophageal motility disorders?

1. Upper GI endoscopy
2. Barium swallow
3. High resolution manometry
4. Contrast enhanced CT scan (CECT) oesophagus

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 428

Pathology & Pharmacology · 2022 P1 Q87

Q571. Which one of the following treatments is considered as Gold standard for brucellosis in adults?

1. Streptomycin and Doxycycline
2. Azithromycin and Rifampin
3. Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole
4. Amikacin and Ciprofloxacin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 163

Forensic Medicine · 2025 P1 Q101

Q572. As per the POCSO (Protection of Children from Sexual Offences) Act 2012, sexual assault is considered aggravated when: I. the abuse involves use of physical violence II. the abused child is disabled III. the abuse is committed by staff of an educational institution IV. the abuse is committed by an immediate family member / first degree relative Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I and IV
2. I and III
3. II and III
4. II and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 407

Forensic Medicine · 2020 P2 Q79

Q573. Consider the following regarding examination of a rape victim. Which of the statements is/are correct? 1. Emergency pill is provided 2. Internal examination must be performed 3. HIV testing is done Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 58

Forensic Medicine · 2020 P2 Q60

Q574. From a medicolegal point of view, which one of the following is NOT a sign of previous childbirth?

1. Perineum is lax with evidence of scarring
2. Introitus is gaping with presence of carunculae myrtiformes
3. Abdomen is lax and loose with striae and linea alba
4. Conical cervix with round external os

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 53

Tuberculosis · 2020 P1 Q15

Q575. The Gene X-pert test used for MTB detection has the additional advantage of detection of which of the following?

1. INH resistance
2. Rifampicin resistance
3. Multi drug resistance
4. Ethambutol resistance

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 10  ·  Rapid Revision — page 370

Tuberculosis · 2020 P1 Q75

Q576. useless Q now-- focus on new Guideline Recommended first time drug for initial treatment of tuberculosis include all EXCEPT:

1. Isoniazid
2. Rifampin
3. Ethambutol
4. Ethionamide

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 27  ·  Rapid Revision — page 370

Tuberculosis · 2020 P1 Q76

Q577. The most frequently adverse reaction of significance among people treated for drug-susceptible tuberculosis is:

1. Colitis
2. Hepatitis
3. Cystitis
4. Enteritis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 27  ·  Rapid Revision — page 370

Tuberculosis · 2020 P1 Q77

Q578. All adult patients in whom anti-tubercular treatment is being started should undergo baseline assessment of:

1. Complete blood count
2. Liver function test
3. Lipid profile
4. Pulmonary function Test

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 27  ·  Rapid Revision — page 370

Tuberculosis · 2020 P1 Q79

Q579. The extrapulmonary sites most commonly involved in tuberculosis are all EXCEPT:

1. Lymph node TB
2. Genitourinary TB
3. Skeletal TB
4. Skull TB

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 27  ·  Rapid Revision — page 370

Tuberculosis · 2020 P2 Q95

Q580. All of the following are true about Bedaquiline (BDQ) EXCEPT:

1. It specifically targets mycobacterial ATP synthase
2. It is a bacteriostatic drug
3. It has extended half-life
4. It has high volume of tissue distribution

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 62  ·  Rapid Revision — page 370

Comparison of CML, CLL, ALL, and AML · 2020 P1 Q55

Q581. Which one of the following is NOT true regarding Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)?

1. It is a clonal malignancy of haematopoetic stem
2. Risk of developing CML is increased in monozygotic turns
3. CML is defined by presence of BCR-ABL 1 fusion gene
4. 10 year survival with TKI therapy is 85%

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 21  ·  Rapid Revision — page 378

Comparison of CML, CLL, ALL, and AML · 2024 P1 Q42

Q582. The Rai staging system and Binet staging system are the two widely used staging systems used for staging which of the following hematological malignancies ?

1. Acute Myeloid Leukemia
2. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
3. Acute Lymphoid Leukemia
4. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 291  ·  Rapid Revision — page 378

Comparison of CML, CLL, ALL, and AML · 2023 P1 Q28

Q583. The BCR-ABL 1 oncoprotein exhibits constitutive activity of which one of the following enzymes?

1. Alanine kinase
2. Tyrosine kinase
3. Leucine kinase
4. Cysteine kinase

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 214  ·  Rapid Revision — page 378

Comparison of CML, CLL, ALL, and AML · 2023 P1 Q29

Q584. Imatinib, Dasatinib, Nilotinib and Ponatinib are examples of which class of drugs?

1. Interferons
2. Monovalent antibodies
3. Bivalent antibodies
4. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 214  ·  Rapid Revision — page 378

Comparison of CML, CLL, ALL, and AML · 2025 P1 Q42

Q585. First line therapy in chronic phase of chronic myeloid leukemia is

1. Rituximab
2. Thalidomide
3. Imatinib
4. Chlorambucil

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 385  ·  Rapid Revision — page 378

Comparison of CML, CLL, ALL, and AML · 2022 P1 Q75

Q586. A 40-year-old male presented with complaints of generalized weakness, weight loss, abdominal discomfort, and decreased appetite. On examination, splenomegaly (massive) was present. On investigation, it was found that hemoglobin was 7.0 g/dL, platelet count–8 lakh per cubic mm, WBC–90,000 per cubic mm. Most probably this is the case of

1. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
2. Chronic myeloid leukemia
3. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
4. Acute myeloid leukemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 161  ·  Rapid Revision — page 378

Hiv · 2021 P2 Q93

Q587. Which of the following drugs should be avoided in the first-line ART regimens because of its well recognized metabolic toxicities?

1. Zidovudine (AZT)
2. Stavudine (d4T)
3. Tenofovir (TDF)
4. Lamivudine (3TC)

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 134  ·  Rapid Revision — page 379

Hiv · 2022 P1 Q51

Q588. Which one of the following HIV-associated infections is least likely with CD4 count > 100 cells/mm³?

1. Cerebral toxoplasmosis
2. Tuberculosis
3. Herpes zoster
4. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 154  ·  Rapid Revision — page 379

Hiv · 2022 P1 Q82

Q589. Consider the following conditions: Kaposi’s sarcoma Lymphoma Tuberculosis Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy Which of the above are causes of lymphadenopathy in an HIV-positive patient?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2, and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 162  ·  Rapid Revision — page 379

Hiv · 2022 P1 Q85

Q590. A 30-year-old male recently diagnosed with HIV presented with odynophagia. He was started on proton-pump inhibitor, and an upper GI endoscopy was done. There were serpiginous ulcers in a normal surrounding mucosa in the distal esophagus. The most likely diagnosis is

1. Herpes simplex esophagitis
2. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease
3. Cytomegalovirus esophagitis
4. Candida esophagitis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 163  ·  Rapid Revision — page 379

Hiv · 2023 P2 Q65

Q591. During delivery of HIV-infected women, which of the following are recommended? (1) Zidovudine (ZDV) is given at the onset of labor. (2) Elective caesarean delivery reduces the risk of vertical transmission. (3) Amniotomy and oxytocin augmentation should be done. (4) Antiretroviral therapy should be given to all neonates. Options:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 258  ·  Rapid Revision — page 379

Hiv · 2023 P2 Q108

Q592. In the National Health Policy 2017, a target of 90:90:90 has been set for HIV/AIDS. Which among the following are targets for which a 90% level has been set as part of 90:90:90 for HIV/AIDS? Proportion of couples who have safe sex Proportion of people living with HIV who know their HIV status Proportion of adolescents who have access to contraceptives Proportion of people receiving antiretroviral therapy who have viral suppression Choose the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 2 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 271  ·  Rapid Revision — page 379

National AIDS Control Organization (NACO) · 2022 P1 Q104

Q593. According to the National AIDS Control Program, which one of the following drugs is given to newborns born to HIV-positive mothers to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV infection?

1. Nevirapine
2. Stavudine
3. Indinavir
4. Ritonavir

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 167  ·  Rapid Revision — page 380

National AIDS Control Organization (NACO) · 2023 P2 Q59

Q594. NACO (National AIDS Control Organization) in India works towards which of the following causes? (1) Screening high-risk cases of HIV (2) Facilitating adoption of orphans (3) Public education towards safe sex (4) Treating HIV cases free of cost Options:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 256  ·  Rapid Revision — page 380

National AIDS Control Organization (NACO) · 2024 P2 Q119

Q595. The National AIDS Control Organization provides prepacked colour-coded STI/RTI kits as a free supply to its designated STI/RTI clinics. Consider the following pairs: | Pair No. | Colour code | STI/RTI conditions | | --- | --- | --- | | 1 | Red | Urethral discharge | | 2 | Green | Vaginitis | | 3 | White | Inguinal bubo | How many of the pairs given are correctly matched?

1. None of the pairs
2. Only one pair
3. Only two pairs
4. All three pairs

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 364  ·  Rapid Revision — page 380

National AIDS Control Organization (NACO) · 2025 P2 Q120

Q596. Under which name (brand) does the National AIDS Control Organization provide the STI/RTI services?

1. Antara Clinic
2. Chhaya Clinic
3. Sathi Clinic
4. Suraksha Clinic

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 470  ·  Rapid Revision — page 380

Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 Benefits · 2020 P2 Q104

Q597. Under the Employees State Insurance (ESI) Scheme, extended sickness benefit is provided in which of the following infectious diseases? 1. Tuberculosis 2. Leprosy 3. Chronic empyema Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 64  ·  Rapid Revision — page 384

Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 Benefits · 2021 P2 Q114

Q598. You visit an industry to audit whether the benefits under the Employees State Insurance Act are being properly provided. Which of the following benefits should be available to the insured persons, or other dependents as the case may be? 1. Medical benefit 2. Sickness benefit 3. Funeral expenses 4. Rehabilitation allowance Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 138  ·  Rapid Revision — page 384

Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 Benefits · 2023 P2 Q118

Q599. The Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 of India provides for certain benefits to employees. Which among the following are benefits to insured persons or to other dependents under the Act? 1. Disablement benefit 2. Funeral expenses 3. Maternity benefit 4. Travel benefit Choose the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2, and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 274  ·  Rapid Revision — page 384

Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 Benefits · 2025 P2 Q114

Q600. Under the Employees’ State Insurance Act 1948, if the sickness of an insured person is duly certified by an Insurance Medical Officer, periodical cash payment benefit is payable for a maximum period of how many days in any continuous period of 365 days, as Sickness Benefit?

1. 30 days
2. 61 days
3. 91 days
4. 121 days

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 467  ·  Rapid Revision — page 384

Chromosome · 2024 P1 Q110

Q601. Which of the following are examples of genomic imprinting? 1. Angelman syndrome 2. Williams syndrome 3. Prader-Willi syndrome 4. DiGeorge syndrome Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 3
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 314

Chromosome · 2025 P1 Q100

Q602. Which of the following syndromes are caused due to genomic imprinting ? I. Rubinstein Taybi syndrome II. Prader-Willi syndrome III. Angelman syndrome IV. Edward syndrome Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. I and III
2. II and III
3. II and IV
4. I and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 406

Chromosome · 2024 P2 Q60

Q603. Which of the following are correct regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome? 1. Inherited as X-linked recessive disorder 2. Karyotype is 46 XXY 3. It is also called testicular feminization 4. Confirmation of diagnosis by gonadal biopsy Select the answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 340

Chromosome · 2023 P2 Q20

Q604. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Familial Adenomatous Polyposis? (1) It is associated with mutation of the APC gene located on the short arm of chromosome 5. (2) It is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition. (3) It is associated with a 100% lifetime risk for development of Colorectal Carcinoma. (4) Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium is present in half of the cases of familial adenomatous polyposis. which is correct answer

1. 1,2 and 3
2. 1,2 and 4
3. 1,3 and 4
4. 2,3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 247

Chromosome · 2025 P1 Q28

Q605. Autosomal dominant mutations in which one of the following genes may cause focal segmental glomerulosclerosis associated with abnormal genitalia, Wilm's tumour and mental retardation?

1. WT1
2. INF2
3. LMX1B
4. APOL1

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 379

Chromosome · 2021 P1 Q51

Q606. Which of the following statements regarding G6PD enzyme deficiency are correct? 1. It is an X-linked deficiency. 2. Geographical distribution parallels the malaria belt. 3. Consumption of fava beans is protective. 4. Transfusion support may be life-saving. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 85