UPSC CMS Previous Year Questions (PYQ) with Answers

Question 1

A 40-year old male is admitted with acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. Half an hour later his B.P. is 80/50 mm Hg and heart rate is 40/minute with sinus rhythm. The most appropriate step in the management of this patient would be:

Accepted Answer

C. Intravenous administration of atropine sulfate

Answer

Administration of normal saline 300 ml over 15 minutes

Answer

Immediate insertion of temporary pacemaker

Answer

Intravenous administration of iso-prenaline 50 µg/minute

Question 2

The characteristic feature of tricuspid insufficiency in the jugular venous pulse is:

Accepted Answer

D. Obliteration of the ‘x’ descent and prominent ‘CV’ wave

Answer

Prominent ‘a’ wave

Answer

Exaggerated ‘x’ and ‘y’ descents

Answer

Cannon waves

Question 3

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I (Clinical Features):
A. Osler's node
B. Differential cyanosis
C. Bisferiens pulse
D. Graham Steell murmur
List II (Diagnosis):
1. Patent ductus arteriosus with reversal of shunt
2. Aortic stenosis with aortic regurgitation
3. Pulmonary hypertension
4. Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Accepted Answer

A. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer

A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

Answer

A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

Answer

A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

Question 4

Acute aortic regurgitation occurs in:

Accepted Answer

A. Infective endocarditis

Answer

Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer

Marfan’s syndrome

Answer

Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 5

The following are early complications of acute myocardial infarction except:

Accepted Answer

D. Dressler’s syndrome

Answer

Papillary muscle dysfunction

Answer

Ventricular septal defect

Answer

Ventricular free wall rupture

Question 6

For which one of the following serum proteins, the level does not decrease in nephrotic syndrome?

Accepted Answer

C. Fibrinogen

Answer

Albumin

Answer

Transferrin

Answer

Ceruloplasmin

Question 7

Following are the causes of high anion-gap acidosis except:

Accepted Answer

A. Renal tubular acidosis

Answer

Acute renal failure

Answer

Chronic renal failure

Answer

Diabetic ketoacidosis

Question 8

A patient of cirrhosis develops oliguria and worsening azotemia. Urinary sediment is normal. Urinary sodium concentration is 5 mEq/L. The most likely cause could be:

Accepted Answer

D. Hepato-renal syndrome

Answer

Interstitial nephritis

Answer

Acute tubular necrosis

Answer

Acute glomerulonephritis

Question 9

Which one of the following infections is related to subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?

Accepted Answer

B. Measles virus

Answer

HIV

Answer

Japanese B encephalitis virus

Answer

JC virus

Question 10

Typical features of Parkinsonism include which of the following?
1. Failure to swing the arms while walking
2. Nystagmus
3. Cogwheel rigidity
4. Festinant gait

Accepted Answer

D. 1, 3 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

1 and 3 only

Question 11

Right homonymous hemianopia will result from lesions at which of the following sites?
1. Left optic tract
2. Left optic radiation
3. Optic chiasma
4. Left lateral geniculate body

Accepted Answer

B. 1, 2 and 4

Answer

1 and 3 only

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Question 12

Raised alkaline phosphatase is seen in the following except:

Accepted Answer

D. Multiple myeloma

Answer

Hyperparathyroidism

Answer

Obstructive jaundice

Answer

Osteomalacia

Question 13

Consider the following statements about acromegaly:
1. Fibroma molluscum and acanthosis nigricans are common findings.
2. Growth hormone secretion is increased by TRH in 50–80% cases.
3. Acroosteolysis is a common radiological finding.
4. Diabetes mellitus may be associated in nearly 25%.

Accepted Answer

C. 1, 2 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Question 14

Causes of hypomagnesemia include all of the following except:

Accepted Answer

A. Beta blocker

Answer

Chronic pancreatic insufficiency

Answer

Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus

Answer

Alcoholism

Question 15

Which of the following conditions are associated with secondary diabetes mellitus?
1. Thyrotoxicosis, pheochromocytoma and acromegaly
2. Haemochromatosis
3. Pancreatic carcinoma

Accepted Answer

B. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

2 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 2 only

Question 16

Boils/suppurative lesions around the nose must be promptly treated with antibiotics. Suppurative lesions around the nose lead to cavernous sinus thrombosis.

Accepted Answer

C. Both 1 and 2

Answer

1 only

Answer

2 only

Answer

Neither 1 nor 2

Question 17

Which one of the following is not the ECG change of hyperkalemia?

Accepted Answer

B. Tall P-wave

Answer

Tall T-wave

Answer

Prolonged PR interval

Answer

QRS widening

Question 18

Which test has the highest chance of detecting HIV infection during window period?

Accepted Answer

C. p24 antigen detection

Answer

ELISA antibody

Answer

CD4 count

Answer

Western blot

Question 19

Which of the following features are characteristic of tuberculoid leprosy?
1. Type 2 lepra reaction
2. Few lesions with well-demarcated edges
3. Early and marked nerve damage
4. Tendency to heal spontaneously

Accepted Answer

B. 2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1 and 4

Answer

2 and 3 only

Question 20

Which one of the following immunological reactions occurs in Goodpasture’s syndrome?

Accepted Answer

B. Type II (Cytotoxic)

Answer

Type I (Atopy)

Answer

Type III (Immune complex)

Answer

Type IV (Cell mediated)

Question 21

Consider the following statements about leptospirosis:
1. It is a ubiquitous enzootic disease.
2. Its incubation period ranges from 2 to 20 days.
3. The intensity of jaundice is directly related to prognosis.
4. Urine may show microscopic haematuria.

Accepted Answer

A. 1, 2 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Question 22

SVC syndrome can occur in the following except:

Accepted Answer

A. Pneumomediastinum

Answer

Goitre

Answer

Bronchogenic carcinoma

Answer

Lymphoma

Question 23

Match List I with List II:
List I (Physical Sign):
A. Koebner phenomenon
B. Erythema nodosum
C. Erythema multiforme
D. Nikolsky's sign
List II (Medical Condition):
1. Lepra reaction
2. Pemphigus vulgaris
3. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
4. Psoriasis

Accepted Answer

D. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

Answer

A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

Answer

A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer

A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

Question 24

Which one of the following is the major site of absorption of Vitamin B12?

Accepted Answer

B. Terminal ileum

Answer

Stomach

Answer

Duodenum

Answer

Mid jejunum

Question 25

The following features regarding polymyositis are true except:

Accepted Answer

C. Ocular muscle involvement is common

Answer

Progressive proximal muscle involvement

Answer

25% patients may present with dysphagia

Answer

Elevated serum creatine kinase

Question 26

Match List I with List II:
List I (Inflammatory Joint Disease):
A. Reiter's syndrome
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Sjogren's syndrome
List II (Clinical Finding):
1. Onycholysis
2. Keratoderma blenorrhagica
3. Xerostomia
4. Baker's cysts

Accepted Answer

B. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Answer

A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

Answer

A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

Answer

A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Question 27

The following drugs are useful in generalized anxiety disorder except:

Accepted Answer

A. Risperidone

Answer

Amitriptyline

Answer

Buspirone

Answer

Venlafaxine

Question 28

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) can have the following features except:

Accepted Answer

B. Bradycardia

Answer

Hypothermia

Answer

Tachypnea

Answer

Leucopenia

Question 29

Which of the following is not a complication of malaria?

Accepted Answer

C. Hyperglycaemia

Answer

ARDS

Answer

Acidosis

Answer

Coma

Question 30

Cardiac troponin may be elevated in:

Accepted Answer

B. Chronic kidney failure

Answer

Muscular dystrophy

Answer

Acute liver failure

Answer

Epilepsy

Question 31

Which of the following are the physiological abnormalities in chronic obstructive lung disease?
1. Reduced total lung capacity (TLC)
2. Increased functional residual capacity (FRC)
3. Increased residual volume (RV)
4. Increased RV/TLC ratio

Accepted Answer

B. 2, 3 and 4

Answer

1 and 2 only

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

3 and 4 only

Question 32

Acute respiratory distress syndrome characteristically occurs in:
1. Gram-negative septicemia
2. Gastric aspiration
3. Pancreatitis
4. Severe burns
5. Myocarditis

Accepted Answer

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer

1, 3, 4 and 5

Answer

1, 2 and 5

Question 33

Botulism can have the following clinical features except:

Accepted Answer

A. Hyperpyrexia

Answer

Sudden onset quadriplegia

Answer

Cranial nerve deficits

Answer

Respiratory failure

Question 34

A 55-year old man presents with sudden onset shortness of breath. Pulse 110/min, BP 180/110 mm Hg, bilateral rhonchi and crepitations, S3 gallop. Most likely diagnosis:

Accepted Answer

B. Acute LVF

Answer

Bronchial asthma

Answer

Pneumothorax

Answer

Acute exacerbation of COPD

Question 35

Small cell carcinoma of lung is commonly associated with:
1. Ectopic ACTH production
2. Lambert-Eaton syndrome
3. SIADH
4. Addison’s disease

Accepted Answer

A. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Question 36

On abdominal percussion, liver dullness may be obliterated in the following except:

Accepted Answer

A. Fatty liver

Answer

Emphysema

Answer

Perforated viscus

Answer

Fulminant hepatitis

Question 37

Regarding Helicobacter pylori:
1. It is Gram-negative
2. It invades the epithelium
3. It produces urease
4. It produces chronic gastritis

Accepted Answer

D. 1, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

1 and 3 only

Answer

2 and 4 only

Question 38

Acute pancreatitis may occur in:
1. Steroid therapy
2. Hypertriglyceridemia
3. Hypercalcemia
4. Azathioprine therapy

Accepted Answer

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3 only

Answer

2 and 4 only

Answer

1, 3 and 4 only

Question 39

A 60-year old patient with progressive dysphagia to solids and weight loss. Most probable diagnosis:

Accepted Answer

B. Carcinoma esophagus

Answer

Stricture esophagus

Answer

Reflux esophagitis

Answer

Neurogenic esophagus

Question 40

Consider the following statements:
1. Gentamicin should be added to empirical regimen for acute meningitis in patients >55 years.
2. Ampicillin covers Listeria monocytogenes.

Accepted Answer

B. 2 only

Answer

1 only

Answer

Both 1 and 2

Answer

Neither 1 nor 2

Question 41

Which one of the following gases is used for sterilization of pharmaceutical products?

Accepted Answer

A. Ethylene oxide

Answer

Ammonia

Answer

Halothane

Answer

Nitrous oxide

Question 42

The following statements about peptic ulcer are true except:

Accepted Answer

B. Duodenal ulcer invariably changes into malignant.

Answer

Eradication of H. pylori is a part of medical management.

Answer

Complications are indication for surgery.

Answer

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is associated with intractable peptic ulceration.

Question 43

In a patient with lacerated injury foot who is not actively immunised against tetanus, which one of the following is indicated for tetanus prophylaxis?

Accepted Answer

C. Tetanus immunoglobulin

Answer

Penicillin

Answer

Tetanus toxoid

Answer

Triple vaccine

Question 44

Which one of the following neoplasms can lead to ‘water intoxication’?

Accepted Answer

A. Oat cell carcinoma of bronchus

Answer

Hepatocarcinoma

Answer

Testicular tumours

Answer

Rhabdomyosarcoma

Question 45

The Swan-Ganz catheter is used to measure:

Accepted Answer

C. Pulmonary wedge pressure

Answer

Peripheral arterial blood pressure

Answer

Portal venous pressure

Answer

Intracranial pressure

Question 46

Delirium is usually seen in:

Accepted Answer

B. Atropine toxicity

Answer

Acetaminophen toxicity

Answer

Kerosene poisoning

Answer

Digitalis toxicity

Question 47

The following statements regarding Hodgkin’s disease are true except:

Accepted Answer

C. Stage III disease is confined to one side of the diaphragm.

Answer

It usually presents as painless lymphadenopathy.

Answer

Pel-Ebstein fever is characteristic.

Answer

Reed-Sternberg cells are diagnostic.

Question 48

Following are causes of bleeding except:

Accepted Answer

A. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

Answer

Dengue fever

Answer

ITP

Answer

Aspirin

Question 49

The combination of cyanosis with clubbing can be seen in the following conditions except:

Accepted Answer

C. Chronic bronchitis

Answer

Eisenmenger syndrome

Answer

Lung abscess

Answer

Pulmonary AV fistula

Question 50

Diagnosis and grading of multi-organ failure is based on all the following criteria except:

Accepted Answer

B. Serum albumin

Answer

Serum bilirubin

Answer

Serum creatinine

Answer

PaO₂/FiO₂ ratio

Question 51

A 16-year old boy presents with exertional dyspnea, haemoptysis and occasionally paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. There was history of joint pains five years back. The most probable diagnosis is:

Accepted Answer

B. Mitral stenosis

Answer

Aortic regurgitation

Answer

Tricuspid stenosis

Answer

Aortic stenosis

Question 52

Adrenocortical insufficiency may result in:
1. Hyponatremia
2. Hypokalemia
3. Acidosis
4. Hyperglycemia

Accepted Answer

B. 1 and 3

Answer

1 only

Answer

2 and 4 only

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Question 53

Life-threatening pneumococcal infection is a complication seen in:
1. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
2. Sickle cell disease
3. Thalassemia minor
4. Nephrotic syndrome

Accepted Answer

C. 2 and 4 only

Answer

1 only

Answer

1 and 3

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Question 54

The following are true regarding Zollinger–Ellison syndrome except:

Accepted Answer

D. It occurs in association with MEN-2 syndrome

Answer

Common age group is 30–50 years

Answer

Gastrin level is usually high

Answer

Diarrhea can be an associated feature

Question 55

The following may be seen in a patient with chronic liver disease except:

Accepted Answer

D. Decreased factor VIII

Answer

Prolonged PT

Answer

Prolonged PTT

Answer

Thrombocytopenia

Question 56

Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by:

Accepted Answer

B. Clostridium difficile

Answer

Shigella

Answer

E. coli

Answer

Clostridium perfringens

Question 57

A patient with ↓ TLC, ↓ VC and normal FEV1/FVC ratio most likely has:

Accepted Answer

B. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Answer

Chronic bronchitis

Answer

Cystic fibrosis

Answer

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

Question 58

A hypertensive male presents with sudden severe headache, ptosis and neck stiffness. Most likely diagnosis:

Accepted Answer

C. Aneurysmal subarachnoid bleed

Answer

Hypertensive brain damage

Answer

Migraine

Answer

Acute pyogenic meningitis

Question 59

Which one of the following is not a treatment of hepatic encephalopathy?

Accepted Answer

C. TIPS

Answer

Lactulose

Answer

Rifaximin

Answer

Electrolyte supplementation

Question 60

Features of intravascular hemolysis are the following except:

Accepted Answer

D. Increased serum haptoglobin

Answer

Increased LDH

Answer

Hemoglobinuria

Answer

Increased serum indirect bilirubin

Question 61

Consider the following statements:
1. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can lead to sudden cardiac death.
2. Dressler’s syndrome is an early complication of acute myocardial infarction.

Accepted Answer

A. 1 only

Answer

2 only

Answer

Both 1 and 2

Answer

Neither 1 nor 2

Question 62

The common sites of hypertensive bleed are the following except:

Accepted Answer

D. Frontal cortex

Answer

Basal ganglion

Answer

Pons

Answer

Cerebellum

Question 63

Hypoglycaemia as an adverse side effect is most commonly seen during treatment with:

Accepted Answer

D. Sulfonylureas

Answer

DPP-4 inhibitors

Answer

Metformin

Answer

α-glucosidase inhibitors

Question 64

Regarding Gilbert’s syndrome:
1. Inheritance is autosomal dominant.
2. Jaundice becomes very severe with time.
3. Fasting leads to increased bilirubin levels.

Accepted Answer

A. 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 only

Answer

2 and 3 only

Answer

1, 2 and 3

UPSC CMS Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations