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Obstetrics & Gynaecology — All UPSC CMS MCQs · 166 questions

Spermatogenesis/ Oogenesis / Fertilization · 2020 P2 Q56

Q1. Implantation of a fertilized ovum occurs on which day following fertilization?

  1. Day 6
  2. Day 10
  3. Day 14
  4. Day 20

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 52  ·  Rapid Revision — page 161

Oogenesis · 2021 P2 Q54

Q2. In non lactating mothers, after delivery, ovulation

  1. may occur as early as 2 weeks
  2. may occur as early as 4 weeks
  3. may occur as early as 6 weeks
  4. is unusual before 6 weeks

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 123  ·  Rapid Revision — page 162

Oogenesis · 2021 P2 Q58

Q3. Endometrial sampling for diagnosis of ovulation is done on which day of menstrual cycle?

  1. 8th – 10th day
  2. 12th day
  3. 14th day
  4. 21st to 23rd day

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 124  ·  Rapid Revision — page 162

Oogenesis · 2023 P2 Q57

Q4. Which of the following days of the menstrual cycle is best for endometrial sampling to diagnose ovulation?

  1. 8th – 10th day
  2. 12th – 14th day
  3. 16th – 20th day
  4. 21st – 23rd day

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 256  ·  Rapid Revision — page 162

Amniotic fluid · 2021 P2 Q75

Q5. Consider the following statements: Statement-1: In fetal growth restriction there is always oligohydramnios Statement-2: In fetal growth restriction there is placental insufficiency leading to redistribution of blood flow to fetal brain shunting it from fetal kidney Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true, and Statement-2 is the correct
  2. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is not the correct
  3. Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false
  4. Statement-2 is true but Statement-1 is false

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 129  ·  Rapid Revision — page 163

Amniotic fluid · 2024 P2 Q41

Q6. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding fetal physiology?

  1. Haematopoiesis is demonstrated first in the yolk sac by 14th day
  2. Meconium appears at 16 weeks
  3. Breathing movements are identified at 26 weeks
  4. Foetal pancreas secretes insulin as early as 20 weeks

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 333  ·  Rapid Revision — page 163

Amniotic fluid · 2024 P2 Q43

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding oligohydramnios: 1. It is defined on USG when maximum vertical pocket of liquor is less than 5 cm. 2. It is defined on USG when AFI is less than 5 cm. Which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 334  ·  Rapid Revision — page 163

Teratogenic drugs · 2025 P1 Q56

Q8. Consider the following statements with regard to the treatment of vitamin A deficiency: I. Repeated high doses of retinol can cause liver damage and teratogenicity II. Acute overdose of vitamin A may lead to increased intracranial pressure and skin desquamation III. Regular vitamin A supplementation is also recommended for pregnant women even in countries where vitamin A deficiency is not endemic IV. Excessive intake of carotene may cause harmless orange pigmentation of the skin Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. I, II and III
  2. I, II and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 390  ·  Rapid Revision — page 164

Pregnancy sign · 2025 P2 Q41

Q9. Chadwick's sign describes:

  1. the dusky hue of the vestibule and anterior vaginal wall visible at about 8th week of pregnancy
  2. softening of cervix at 6th week of pregnancy
  3. the abdominal and vaginal fingers apposed below the body of the uterus during bimanual examination
  4. regular and rhythmic uterine contraction which can be elicited during bimanual examination at 4–8 weeks of pregnancy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 434  ·  Rapid Revision — page 165

Mtp · 2020 P2 Q50

Q10. Which of the following is/are required for a registered medical practitioner to qualify for performing Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP), as per revised rules of MTP Act? 1. Certified for assisting at least 15 MTP in an authorized centre 2. Diploma or degree in Obstetrics and Gynaecology 3. House surgeon training for 3 months in Obstetrics and Gynaecology 4. Certified training for 6 months in laparoscopic surgeries Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 51  ·  Rapid Revision — page 166

Mtp · 2020 P2 Q52

Q11. As per ICMR guidelines, which one of the following statements is true regarding effects of COVID-19 on fetus according to current evidence?

  1. There is increased risk of early pregnancy loss
  2. COVID-19 virus is not teratogenic
  3. COVID-19 virus infection is an indication of MTP
  4. There is increased risk of fetal growth restriction

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 51  ·  Rapid Revision — page 166

Amenorrhea & Chromosomal Disorder related · 2020 P2 Q69

Q12. Withdrawal bleeding following administration of progesterone in a case of secondary amenorrhea indicates all EXCEPT:

  1. Absence of pregnancy
  2. Production of endogenous estrogen
  3. Endometrium is responsive to estrogen
  4. Defect in pituitary gland

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 56  ·  Rapid Revision — page 170

Amenorrhea & Chromosomal Disorder related · 2023 P1 Q48

Q13. Which one of the following is an example of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

  1. Kallmann’s syndrome
  2. Klinefelter’s syndrome
  3. Turner’s syndrome
  4. Cryptorchidism

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 218  ·  Rapid Revision — page 170

Amenorrhea & Chromosomal Disorder related · 2024 P2 Q62

Q14. A 16-year-old girl with primary amenorrhoea presents to the gynaecology OPD for evaluation. She has normal secondary sexual characters. Her karyotype is 46,XX and ultrasound reveals normal ovaries and tubes but absent uterus. What is her clinical diagnosis?

  1. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
  2. Turner syndrome
  3. Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome
  4. Primary ovarian failure

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 341  ·  Rapid Revision — page 170

Amenorrhea & Chromosomal Disorder related · 2024 P2 Q63

Q15. A 25-year-old female comes to the gynaecology OPD for evaluation of secondary amenorrhoea. She gives history of previous dilatation and curettage, and her FSH levels are 8 IU/L. The probable cause of amenorrhoea is

  1. Sheehan syndrome
  2. Asherman syndrome
  3. Premature ovarian failure
  4. Incomplete abortion

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 342  ·  Rapid Revision — page 170

Down Syndrome · 2020 P1 Q116

Q16. Which of the following is recommended in the follow up health visits of a child with Down syndrome?

  1. Conduct growth assessments biannually during the first year and annually until the age of 5
  2. Perform annual auditory screenings from ages 1 to 5
  3. Screen for refractive errors if visual impairment is suspected
  4. Carry out annual thyroid function tests from birth to age 2

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 36

Down Syndrome · 2024 P1 Q109

Q17. The risk of Down syndrome is 100% in the offspring, if:

  1. Mother only is the carrier of balanced translocation
  2. Father only is the carrier of balanced translocation
  3. Both parents are carriers of balanced translocation
  4. Either parent is a carrier of translocation between two chromosome 21

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 314

Non-Invasive Prenatal Screening (NIPS) · 2022 P2 Q58

Q18. Which of the following are included in the combined prenatal screening tests in first trimester? 1. β-hCG.. 2. MS AFP (α-Fetoprotein) 3. Nuchal translucency 4. PAPP-A Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 2 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 192  ·  Rapid Revision — page 174

cervix to uterine body ratio & vaginal pH · 2021 P2 Q56

Q19. The vaginal pH in childbearing age normally ranges between

  1. 2·5 – 3·5
  2. 1 – 2
  3. 4 – 5·5
  4. 7 – 8

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 124  ·  Rapid Revision — page 176

Ectopic pregnancy · 2021 P2 Q46

Q20. What are Spiegelberg’s criteria for diagnosis of ovarian pregnancy? 1. Tube on the affected side must be intact 2. Gestational sac must be in the position of ovary 3. Gestational sac is connected to uterus by ovarian ligament 4. Ovarian tissue must be detected on the wall on histological examination Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 121  ·  Rapid Revision — page 177

Ectopic pregnancy · 2022 P2 Q73

Q21. Which of the following symptoms are related to ectopic pregnancy? 1. Acute abdominal pain following amenorrhea 2. Abdominal pain with bleeding P/V 3. Fainting attack with shoulder pain 4. Painless continuous bleeding Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 196  ·  Rapid Revision — page 177

Ectopic pregnancy · 2025 P2 Q73

Q22. A 30-year-old P₃L₃ female presents in Gynaecology emergency with acute abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of short duration (1 hour). She gives history of tubal ligation after birth of third child. On examination, right adnexal tenderness was found and os was closed. What is the probable diagnosis?

  1. Ectopic pregnancy
  2. Pelvic inflammatory disease
  3. Appendicitis
  4. Complete abortion

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 452  ·  Rapid Revision — page 177

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) · 2021 P2 Q65

Q23. Which of the following are risk factors for developing pelvic inflammatory disease in females? 1. Use of oral contraception pills 2. Multiple sexual partners 3. Lower socioeconomic status 4. Genetic predisposition Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 126  ·  Rapid Revision — page 182

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) · 2021 P2 Q68

Q24. A 25 year old girl is presented to Gynaecology OPD with complaints of abdominal pain, heavy menstrual bleeding with a mass arising from the hypogastrium corresponding to 16 weeks gravid uterus. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. The most likely diagnosis would be

  1. Pelvic inflammatory disease
  2. Uterine fibroid
  3. Ovarian tumour
  4. Endometriosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 127  ·  Rapid Revision — page 182

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) · 2024 P2 Q64

Q25. Which of the following criteria are required to be fulfilled for hospitalization in a case of pelvic inflammatory disease? 1. Coexisting pregnancy 2. Mild fever and pain responding well to antibiotics 3. Suspected tubo-ovarian abscess 4. Coexistent HIV infection Select the correct answer using the code below.

  1. 1, 3 and 4
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 343  ·  Rapid Revision — page 182

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) · 2024 P2 Q66

Q26. Which of the following are risk factors for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)? 1. Use of contraceptive pills 2. IUD use 3. Genetic predisposition 4. Sexually active teenagers Select the correct answer using the code below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 343  ·  Rapid Revision — page 182

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) · 2025 P2 Q67

Q27. Which of the following are the primary organisms involved in PID? I. N. gonorrhoeae II. Chlamydia III. Mycoplasma hominis IV. Candida albicans Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. I, II and III
  2. I, II and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 450  ·  Rapid Revision — page 182

Hormone level · 2020 P1 Q60

Q28. A young lady presents in outdoor clinic with complaints of menstrual irregularity, weight gain, hair loss, tiredness and weakness. What will be the investigation of choice?

  1. FSH & LH level
  2. Estrogen level
  3. Free T3 and free T4 level
  4. Free T4 and TSH level

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 22  ·  Rapid Revision — page 182

Hormone level · 2022 P2 Q64

Q29. Which one of the following blood tests is the marker of ovarian reserve?

  1. β-hCG
  2. Anti-Mullerian hormone
  3. Placental alkaline phosphatase
  4. Serum estradiol

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 194  ·  Rapid Revision — page 182

Hormone level · 2023 P2 Q50

Q30. What are the causes of lactation failure after delivery? (1) Infrequent suckling (2) Depression or anxiety state in the puerperium (3) Prolactin inhibition Options:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 254  ·  Rapid Revision — page 182

Instrumental delivery · 2020 P2 Q54

Q31. Which one of the following is NOT a method of management of Deep Transverse Arrest with the living fetus?

  1. Caesarean section
  2. Delivery by ventouse
  3. Delivery by application of forceps to the unrotated head
  4. Manual rotation and application of forceps

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 52  ·  Rapid Revision — page 183

Instrumental delivery · 2021 P2 Q55

Q32. Which of the following are requisites of outlet forceps delivery? 1. Bladder should be empty 2. Membranes should be intact 3. Cervix should be fully dilated 4. Fetal skull has reached level of pelvic floor Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 124  ·  Rapid Revision — page 183

Instrumental delivery · 2022 P2 Q48

Q33. Indications and prerequisites for delivery with the ventouse include which of the following? 1. Delay in the second stage of labour 2. Non-reassuring fetal heart rate 3. Gestation age less than 34 weeks of pregnancy 4. Vertex presentation Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 188  ·  Rapid Revision — page 183

Instrumental delivery · 2024 P2 Q49

Q34. A 30-year-old female P₂L₂ had a forceps delivery 2 days back. There was injury to head of baby resulting in collection of blood in soft tissue between pericranium and flat bone of skull, limited by suture line. What is the probable diagnosis?

  1. Caput succedaneum
  2. Intraventricular haemorrhage
  3. Cephalohaematoma
  4. Subgaleal haemorrhage

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 336  ·  Rapid Revision — page 183

Occipito-Posterior (OP) · 2020 P2 Q54

Q35. Which one of the following is NOT a method of management of Deep Transverse Arrest with the living fetus?

  1. Caesarean section
  2. Delivery by ventouse
  3. Delivery by application of forceps to the unrotated head
  4. Manual rotation and application of forceps

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 52  ·  Rapid Revision — page 186

Occipito-Posterior (OP) · 2025 P2 Q50

Q36. Which of the following factors favour posterior position of the vertex? I. Anthropoid pelvis II. Low inclination pelvis III. Attachment of placenta on the anterior wall IV. Primary brachycephaly Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. I, II and III
  2. I, II and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 440  ·  Rapid Revision — page 186

Important diameter of head · 2021 P2 Q52

Q37. In the mechanism of normal labour the engaging transverse diameter is

  1. Suboccipitobregmatic (9·5 cm)
  2. Biparietal diameter (9·5 cm)
  3. Bimastoid diameter (7·5 cm)
  4. Suboccipitofrontal diameter (10 cm)

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 123  ·  Rapid Revision — page 188

Important diameter of head · 2024 P2 Q47

Q38. The diameter of engagement of fetal skull in marked deflexion is

  1. occipitofrontal diameter
  2. Suboccipitofrontal diameter
  3. mentovertical diameter
  4. Suboccipitobregmatic diameter

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 336  ·  Rapid Revision — page 188

Endometrial Ca · 2020 P2 Q43

Q39. Which one of the following is a protective factor for endometrial hyperplasia?

  1. Diabetes
  2. Tamoxifen therapy
  3. Multiparity
  4. Delayed menopause

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 49  ·  Rapid Revision — page 189

Endometrial Ca · 2022 P2 Q67

Q40. Which of the following are correct regarding endometrial cancer? 1. Persistent progesterone stimulation is an important etiology. 2. It is more common in white population. 3. HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) syndrome is a high risk factor. 4. Adenocarcinoma is the commonest histopathology. Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 194  ·  Rapid Revision — page 189

Endometrial Ca · 2025 P2 Q75

Q41. Which of the following are poor prognostic factors in endometrial adenocarcinoma? I. Estrogen and progesterone receptor positivity II. HER-2/neu gene expression III. Histologic types papillary serous or clear cell carcinoma IV. Aneuploid tumours Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. I, II and III
  2. I, II and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 453  ·  Rapid Revision — page 189

Ovarian cancer risk factors · 2020 P2 Q66

Q42. Tumor marker of epithelial ovarian carcinoma is:

  1. Ca.125
  2. Alpha feto protein
  3. Beta HCG
  4. LDH

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 55  ·  Rapid Revision — page 189

Ovarian cancer risk factors · 2021 P2 Q3

Q43. Which one of the following is NOT associated with BRCA1/BRCA2 genes?

  1. Breast cancer
  2. Ovarian cancer
  3. Prostate cancer
  4. Liver cancer

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 107  ·  Rapid Revision — page 189

Ovarian cancer risk factors · 2022 P2 Q44

Q44. Serum level of CA 125 is raised in which of the following conditions? 1. Epithelial ovarian cancer 2. Endometriosis 3. Pelvic inflammatory disease Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 187  ·  Rapid Revision — page 189

Ovarian cancer risk factors · 2023 P2 Q60

Q45. Prophylactic oophorectomy is recommended in high-risk women with which of the following? (1) Carrying BRCA1 or BRCA2 genes (2) Family history of breast, colon, ovarian cancer (3) Patients having tubo-ovarian abscess Options:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 257  ·  Rapid Revision — page 189

Ovarian cancer risk factors · 2023 P2 Q73

Q46. Bilateral total salpingectomy is a recommended surgical procedure to reduce the risk of:

  1. Epithelial ovarian cancer
  2. Uterine cancer
  3. Fallopian tube cancer
  4. Peritoneal cancer

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 261  ·  Rapid Revision — page 189

Ovarian cancer risk factors · 2024 P2 Q69

Q47. Which of the following are favorable factors in prognosis of ovarian malignancy? 1. Older age group 2. Well-differentiated tumour 3. Smaller tumour volume 4. Absence of ascites Select the correct answer using the code below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 345  ·  Rapid Revision — page 189

Cervix Cancer · 2020 P2 Q67

Q48. The most common site of cervical cancer is:

  1. Endocervix
  2. Ectocervix
  3. Transformation zone
  4. Isthmus

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 55  ·  Rapid Revision — page 190

Cervix Cancer · 2022 P2 Q42

Q49. Which of the following are screening tests for cervical cancer? 1. Pap test 2. HPV DNA test 3. Visual inspections with acetic acid 4. Endocervical curettage Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 186  ·  Rapid Revision — page 190

Cervix Cancer · 2022 P2 Q66

Q50. Which of the following are correct regarding genital warts (condyloma acuminata)? 1. It is usually single. 2. It is related to HPV Types 6 and 11. 3. It can be transmitted sexually. 4. It can involve vagina and anus. Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 194  ·  Rapid Revision — page 190

Cervix Cancer · 2022 P2 Q79

Q51. Which surgery is most likely to disturb the paracervical nerve plexus resulting in atonicity of the bladder?

  1. Vaginal hysterectomy
  2. Radical hysterectomy
  3. Simple hysterectomy
  4. Myomectomy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 198  ·  Rapid Revision — page 190

Cervix Cancer · 2020 P2 Q96

Q52. Visual inspection based screening test with 5% acetic acid is used for the screening of which one of the following cancers?

  1. Lung cancer
  2. Cervix cancer
  3. Oral cancer
  4. Breast cancer

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 62  ·  Rapid Revision — page 190

Few point about Cold Knife Conization (CKC) · 2021 P2 Q69

Q53. A 39 year old nulliparous female has presented to Gynaecology OPD with complaint of post coital bleeding for past six months. The first investigation to be offered to this female will be

  1. Colposcopy
  2. Dilatation and Curettage
  3. Pap smear
  4. Cone Biopsy of Cervix

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 128  ·  Rapid Revision — page 191

Few point about Cold Knife Conization (CKC) · 2023 P2 Q78

Q54. Which one of the following is an indication for cold knife conization?

  1. Treatment of Nabothian follicle on ectocervix
  2. Inconsistent findings of colposcopy, cytology, and directed biopsy
  3. Negative endocervical curettage
  4. Squamous cell carcinoma cervix stage IIA

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 262  ·  Rapid Revision — page 191

Few point about Cold Knife Conization (CKC) · 2024 P2 Q74

Q55. Which of the following are indications of cold knife conization? 1. Inconsistent finding colposcopy, cytology and directed biopsy 2. Persistent CIN-1 lesion in women willing for future fertility 3. Carcinoma in situ 4. Unsatisfactory colposcopic finding entire margin of lesion is not visible Select the correct answer using the code below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 347  ·  Rapid Revision — page 191

Nst · 2020 P2 Q42

Q56. Consider the following statements regarding Non Stress Test (NST): 1. Reactive NST indicates a healthy fetus 2. NST is an observed association of fetal breathing with fetal movements 3. NST has a low false negative rate (< 1%) but high false positive rate (>50%) 4. Testing should be started at 20 weeks Which of the statement(s) above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 48  ·  Rapid Revision — page 191

Nst · 2021 P2 Q47

Q57. Which one of the following statements regarding fetal well being is NOT correct?

  1. Daily fetal movement count is a simple reliable method of fetal wellbeing
  2. Modified Biophysical profile includes Non-stress test and fetal breathing
  3. Mothers perceive 88% of fetal movements
  4. Healthy fetus should have minimum of 10 movements in 12 hours period

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 122  ·  Rapid Revision — page 191

Afp · 2023 P2 Q95

Q58. If, on amniocentesis, the alpha fetoprotein is found to be elevated in the amniotic fluid, which defect/disorder is the fetus likely to harbor?

  1. Cardiac septal defects
  2. Neural tube defects
  3. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  4. Galactosemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 267  ·  Rapid Revision — page 192

Afp · 2024 P1 Q107

Q59. To prevent recurrence, expectant mothers with a previous fetus with neural tube defect should receive folic acid daily at the dose of:

  1. 4 µg
  2. 400 µg
  3. 4 mg
  4. 400 mg

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 313  ·  Rapid Revision — page 192

Contraception / OCP · 2020 P2 Q44

Q60. A woman who is not breast feeding her newborn child is advised to use a contraceptive method by:

  1. 3rd postpartum week
  2. 6th postpartum week
  3. 3rd postpartum month
  4. 6th postpartum month

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 49

Contraception / OCP · 2020 P2 Q48

Q61. Which one of the following is NOT a contraindication for use of Mini pill?

  1. Pregnancy
  2. Breast feeding
  3. Thromboembolic disease
  4. History of breast cancer

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 50

Contraception / OCP · 2021 P2 Q76

Q62. Which of the following are correct regarding failure rate of contraceptive methods? 1. Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate 0 to 1 per HWY 2. Norplant 0·1 per HWY 3. LNG-IUS 0·02 per HWY 4. Levonorgestrel 3 per HWY Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 130

Contraception / OCP · 2021 P2 Q77

Q63. Consider the following in respect of Ormeloxifene: 1. It is a research product of Central Drug Research Institute, Lucknow 2. It is a steroidal compound 3. It is a potent antiestrogen with weak estrogenic properties 4. It does not inhibit ovulation Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 130

Contraception / OCP · 2021 P2 Q78

Q64. Steroidal contraceptives in the basket of contraceptive of Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India are:

  1. Monophasic
  2. Biphasic
  3. Triphasic
  4. Estrogen only pills

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 130

Contraception / OCP · 2021 P2 Q79

Q65. Which of the following are absolute contraindications of Combined Oral Contraceptive (COCs)? 1. Arterial or venous thrombosis history 2. Severe hypertension 3. Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia 4. Diabetes with vascular complications Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 130

Contraception / OCP · 2021 P2 Q80

Q66. After male sterilization, additional contraceptive protection is:

  1. needed for 1 month
  2. needed for 1 to 2 months
  3. needed for 2 to 3 months
  4. not needed

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 130

Contraception / OCP · 2023 P2 Q70

Q67. Which of the following are correct regarding ‘Chhaya’ contraceptive? 1. It has potent anti-estrogenic and estrogenic property. 2. Failure rate is 1 – 4 per HWY (Hundred Women Years) of use. 3. It inhibits ovulation. 4. It creates asynchrony between zygote and endometrium. Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 260

Contraception / OCP · 2023 P2 Q72

Q68. How many times in a year does withdrawal bleeding occur in extended continuous regimens of combined oral contraceptive pills?

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 260

Contraception / OCP · 2023 P2 Q76

Q69. Which of the following are the absolute contraindications for the use of combined oral contraceptive pills? 1. Severe hypertension 2. Pregnancy 3. Diabetes with retinopathy 4. Gall bladder disease Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 261

Contraception / OCP · 2024 P2 Q78

Q70. Which of the following are major complications of oral pills? 1. Cholestasis jaundice 2. Chloasma and acne 3. Venous thromboembolism 4. Breast cancer Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 348

Contraception / OCP · 2024 P2 Q80

Q71. A 25-year-old newly married female on liver enzyme inducers is requesting contraceptive advice in family planning clinic. Which of the following would be the most reliable method of contraception for her?

  1. Combined oral contraceptive pill
  2. Male condom
  3. Diaphragm
  4. Depo-Provera injection

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 349

Intrauterine Devices · 2020 P2 Q46

Q72. Indications for removal of IUDs are all EXCEPT:

  1. Perforation of uterus
  2. Cyclical menstrual bleeding
  3. Flaring up of salpingitis
  4. Pregnancy with IUD

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 50  ·  Rapid Revision — page 196

Intrauterine Devices · 2020 P2 Q47

Q73. Contraindications for insertion of IUDs are all EXCEPT:

  1. Suspected pregnancy
  2. Trophoblastic disease
  3. Severe dysmenorrhea
  4. During cesarean section

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 50  ·  Rapid Revision — page 196

Intrauterine Devices · 2020 P2 Q118

Q74. Which one of the following IUDs is associated with a low pregnancy rate (0.2 per 100), less number of ectopic pregnancies and lower menstrual blood loss?

  1. Cu T-380A
  2. ML-Cu375
  3. Progestasert
  4. LNG-20(Mirena)

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 68  ·  Rapid Revision — page 196

Intrauterine Devices · 2021 P2 Q115

Q75. Among the following intra-uterine contraceptive devices, which of the following are included in second generation IUDs? 1. Lippes Loop 2. Copper T-200 3. LNG-20 (Mirena) 4. Copper-T-380 Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 138  ·  Rapid Revision — page 196

Intrauterine Devices · 2022 P2 Q55

Q76. Which of the following are contraindications for insertion of Intrauterine Contraceptive Device (IUCD)? 1. Age > 35 years 2. Suspected pregnancy 3. Acute pelvic infection 4. Severe dysmenorrhea Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 191  ·  Rapid Revision — page 196

Intrauterine Devices · 2023 P2 Q75

Q77. Indications for removal of IUDs include which of the following? (1) Perforation of uterus (2) Pregnancy with device in situ (3) One year after menopause (4) Persistent migraine Options:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 261  ·  Rapid Revision — page 196

Intrauterine Devices · 2024 P2 Q65

Q78. A young female presented with complaints of lower abdominal pain, vaginal discharge, history of IUD use for last 3–4 years. On examination, the patient had fever, adnexal/cervical motion tenderness and increased ESR and C-reactive protein. What is the probable clinical diagnosis?

  1. Ectopic pregnancy
  2. Acute appendicitis
  3. Diverticulitis
  4. Acute PID

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 343  ·  Rapid Revision — page 196

Intrauterine Devices · 2024 P2 Q79

Q79. Which of the following conditions are indications of removal of intrauterine device? 1. Persistent irregular uterine bleeding 2. Perforation of uterus 3. Pyelonephritis 4. Pregnancy with device in situ Select the correct answer using the code below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 349  ·  Rapid Revision — page 196

Intrauterine Devices · 2024 P2 Q114

Q80. Consider the following statements regarding LNG-20 (Mirena): 1. It is a T-shaped IUD filled with natural hormone progesterone. 2. It is associated with a low pregnancy rate (2 per 1000 women). 3. It is associated with a large number of ectopic pregnancies. 4. It is associated with lower menstrual blood loss as compared to copper IUDs. Which of the statements given is/are correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 361  ·  Rapid Revision — page 196

Intrauterine Devices · 2025 P2 Q71

Q81. Which of the following statements about hysterosalpingography, as an operative procedure, are correct? I. Tubal patency assessment following tuboplasty operation II. Diagnosis of uterine synechiae III. Detection of IUD IV. Diagnosis of subserosal fibroid Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. I, II and III
  2. I, II and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 451  ·  Rapid Revision — page 196

Schroeder's ring vs Bandl's Ring · 2022 P2 Q75

Q82. Which of the following statements are correct regarding constriction ring? 1. Premature rupture of membranes is a high risk factor. 2. It is situated at the junction of upper and lower uterine segment. 3. Uterus never ruptures. 4. The ring is felt per abdomen. Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 196  ·  Rapid Revision — page 200

Pelvic hematoma · 2022 P2 Q76

Q83. A patient delivered a live healthy baby 4 hours back. Now she has developed persistent severe pain in the perineal region and rectal tenesmus. Local examination reveals a tense and tender purple swelling at the vulva. What is her probable diagnosis?

  1. Cervical tear
  2. Perineal tear
  3. Pelvic hematoma
  4. Ruptured uterus

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 197  ·  Rapid Revision — page 201

Pelvic hematoma · 2025 P2 Q57

Q84. A P1L1 lady after 4 hours of delivery is suffering from persistent, severe pain in the perineal region, rectal tenesmus, bearing down feeling and retention of urine. The probable diagnosis is:

  1. Cervical tear
  2. Vulval hematoma
  3. Supra levator hematoma
  4. Complete perineal tear

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 443  ·  Rapid Revision — page 201

Rh incompatibility · 2021 P2 Q72

Q85. Which one of the following statements regarding Rh isoimmunization are correct? 1. Liley’s chart identifies anemia better than middle cerebral artery doppler 2. Indirect coomb’s test is positive in mother 3. Baby is at risk of developing anemia 4. Direct coomb’s test is positive in baby Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 128  ·  Rapid Revision — page 204

Heavy Menstrual Bleeding / Puberty Menorrhagia · 2021 P1 Q56

Q86. A 20-year-old young girl presents with heavy menstrual bleeding, petechiae on her arms and blood blisters in mouth. Her complete blood count shows hemoglobin 7 gm/dL, total leucocyte count 8,700 cells/μL and platelet count of 6,000/μL with peripheral smear showing large platelets. Which is likely the best initial drug treatment for this patient?

  1. High dose glucocorticoids
  2. High dose glucocorticoids with IVIgG
  3. High dose glucocorticoids with Rituximab
  4. IVIgG with anti-Rho

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 86

Heavy Menstrual Bleeding / Puberty Menorrhagia · 2021 P2 Q63

Q87. Which one of the following is the most important haematological condition to be ruled out while investigating a case of puberty menorrhagia?

  1. Anaemia
  2. Coagulation disorder
  3. G-6PD deficiency
  4. Leukemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 126

Heavy Menstrual Bleeding / Puberty Menorrhagia · 2022 P2 Q43

Q88. Heavy menstrual bleeding is a common presentation in which of the following? 1. Clotting factor deficiency 2. Fibroid uterus 3. Adenomyosis 4. Prolactinoma Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 187

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding (PALM-COEIN) / Endometrial Sampling · 2022 P2 Q65

Q89. In the PALM-COEIN classification by FIGO for abnormal uterine bleeding, ovulatory dysfunction is the cause in which one of the following conditions?

  1. Adenomyosis
  2. Pelvic inflammatory disease
  3. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
  4. Ovarian cancer

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 194

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding (PALM-COEIN) / Endometrial Sampling · 2025 P2 Q65

Q90. Causes of AUB are subdivided by the acronym PALM-COEIN. What are the characteristics of PALM causes? I. Structural lesions II. Diagnosed by ultrasound III. Confirmed by histopathology Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. I and II only
  2. I and III only
  3. I, II and III
  4. II and III only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 449

Abnormal Uterine Bleeding (PALM-COEIN) / Endometrial Sampling · 2025 P2 Q72

Q91. Which of the following are indications of endometrial sampling? I. Endometrial tuberculosis II. Endometrial polyp III. Postmenopausal bleeding IV. Abnormal uterine bleeding Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. I, II and III
  2. I, II and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 451

Fibroid · 2021 P2 Q68

Q92. A 25 year old girl is presented to Gynaecology OPD with complaints of abdominal pain, heavy menstrual bleeding with a mass arising from the hypogastrium corresponding to 16 weeks gravid uterus. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. The most likely diagnosis would be:

  1. Pelvic inflammatory disease
  2. Uterine fibroid
  3. Ovarian tumour
  4. Endometriosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 127

Fibroid · 2025 P2 Q76

Q93. For which of the following conditions, surgery is indicated in a case of Fibroid Uterus? I. Symptomatic and failed medical management II. Size > 12 weeks III. Pedunculated fibroid Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. I, II and III
  2. I and II only
  3. II and III only
  4. I and III only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 454

Gartner Cyst · 2023 P2 Q62

Q94. Which one of the following is the distinguishing feature to differentiate Gartner’s cyst from Cystocele?

  1. Marked cough impulse in Gartner’s cyst
  2. Margins are ill-defined in Gartner’s cyst
  3. There is no impulse on coughing in cystocele
  4. Gartner’s cyst is not reducible

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 257

Bartholin Gland · 2020 P2 Q77

Q95. A 30-year-old lady, P2L2 presents with painful unilateral swelling in vulva for 3 days. Which of the following statements are true regarding the above case? 1. Bartholin’s abscess may be the likely diagnosis 2. It is to be managed by marsupialisation 3. Gonococcus is the most common pathogenic organism Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 58

Bartholin Gland · 2025 P2 Q79

Q96. Opening of Bartholin’s duct is in the:

  1. vestibule outside the hymen at the junction of the anterior 2/3rd and posterior 1/3rd in the groove between the hymen and labium minus
  2. groove between labia majora and labia minora
  3. superficial perineal pouch at the junction of anterior 1/3rd and posterior 1/3rd
  4. periurethral region in anterior 1/3rd of labia minora

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 455

Tumour Types / Epidemiology · 2021 P2 Q66

Q97. A 65 year old postmenopausal lady presents in Gynaecology OPD with abdominal distension and weight loss. On investigation she was diagnosed to have an ovarian tumour. The most common type of ovarian tumour in this woman would be:

  1. Germ cell tumor
  2. Sex cord tumor
  3. Epithelial tumor
  4. Trophoblastic tumor

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 127

Tumour Types / Epidemiology · 2025 P2 Q47

Q98. The commonest ovarian tumour seen during pregnancy is:

  1. Benign cystic teratoma
  2. Mucinous cystadenoma
  3. Endometrioma
  4. Adenocarcinoma ovary

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 438

Tumour Types / Epidemiology · 2025 P2 Q68

Q99. What are the characteristics of dermoid cyst? I. Germ cell ovarian tumour II. Bilateral in 15–20% cases III. Torsion is common IV. Rupture is common Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. I and III only
  2. II and IV only
  3. II, III and IV
  4. I, II and III

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 450

Specific Tumours / Markers · 2022 P2 Q44

Q100. Serum level of CA 125 is raised in which of the following conditions? 1. Epithelial ovarian cancer 2. Endometriosis 3. Pelvic inflammatory disease Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 187

Specific Tumours / Markers · 2023 P2 Q61

Q101. ‘Schiller-Duval body’ is a characteristic histological feature of which one of the following cancers?

  1. Dysgerminoma
  2. Endodermal sinus tumor
  3. Non-gestational ovarian choriocarcinoma
  4. Sex cord stromal tumors

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 257

Specific Tumours / Markers · 2024 P2 Q71

Q102. A 48-year-old female underwent total hysterectomy with bilateral Salpingo-oophorectomy. The surgical specimen revealed solid ovarian tumour and histology revealed thecoma-fibroma. Which one of the following is the most appropriate statement regarding this condition?

  1. 20% of such tumours are bilateral.
  2. Endometrial hyperplasia is often associated.
  3. It is always associated with gross ascites.
  4. It is derived from germ cells.

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 346

Meigs Syndrome · 2021 P2 Q67

Q103. Which of the following are the characteristic features of Meigs’ syndrome in a female? 1. Right sided hydrothorax 2. Ascites 3. Genital warts 4. Fibroma ovary Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 127

Gestational Hypertension · 2021 P2 Q45

Q104. Which one of the following is NOT a risk factor for pre-eclampsia?

  1. Primigravida
  2. Obesity
  3. Pre-existing vascular disease
  4. Placenta previa

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 121  ·  Rapid Revision — page 211

Gestational Hypertension · 2022 P2 Q53

Q105. The definition of gestational hypertension includes which of the following? 1. Sustained rise of blood pressure to 140/90 mm of Hg or more at least on two occasions 12 hours apart at any period of pregnancy 2. Sustained rise of blood pressure to 140/90 mm of Hg beyond 40 hours of delivery 3. Sustained rise of blood pressure to 140/90 mm of Hg on two occasions 4 or more hours apart 4. Pregnancy should be more than 20 weeks Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 2 and 4
  2. 3 and 4
  3. 1
  4. 3 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 190  ·  Rapid Revision — page 211

Gestational Hypertension · 2023 P2 Q74

Q106. Tongue bite occurs in eclampsia at:

  1. Tonic stage
  2. Clonic stage
  3. Coma stage
  4. Postictal stage

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 261  ·  Rapid Revision — page 211

Gestational Hypertension · 2024 P2 Q54

Q107. A 24-year-old primigravida comes to ANC clinic at 8 months amenorrhoea. Her BP is found to be 160/100 mm Hg. Lab findings reveal thrombocytopenia, increased SGOT/SGPT and LDH. What is her diagnosis?

  1. Obstetric cholestasis
  2. Hepatitis B
  3. HELLP syndrome
  4. Eclampsia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 338  ·  Rapid Revision — page 211

Gestational Hypertension · 2025 P2 Q52

Q108. Detection of magnesium toxicity in a patient receiving magnesium sulphate is noticed by which of the following? I. Loss of tendon reflexes II. Increased respiratory rate III. Chest pain, heart block IV. Cardiac arrest Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. I, III and IV
  2. II and IV only
  3. I and III only
  4. III and IV only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 441  ·  Rapid Revision — page 211

Bacterial vaginosis vs Trichomonas vaginitis vs Candidal · 2020 P2 Q65

Q109. Which of the following are characteristics of Trichomonas vaginitis? 1.Presence of greenish frothy discharge 2.Vaginal pH > 4.5 3.Presence of clue cells in microscopic examination 4.Strawberry spots on the vaginal mucosa Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 55  ·  Rapid Revision — page 213

Bacterial vaginosis vs Trichomonas vaginitis vs Candidal · 2020 P2 Q70

Q110. Monilial vaginitis is commonly associated with all EXCEPT:

  1. Prolonged antibiotic therapy
  2. Diabetes Mellitus
  3. Treatment of malaria with chloroquine
  4. Pregnancy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 56  ·  Rapid Revision — page 213

Bacterial vaginosis vs Trichomonas vaginitis vs Candidal · 2022 P2 Q54

Q111. A 27-year-old female is complaining of grayish white discharge with fishy odour. There is no history of itching associated with discharge. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. Trichomoniasis
  2. Candidiasis
  3. Urinary tract infection
  4. Bacterial vaginosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 191  ·  Rapid Revision — page 213

Bacterial vaginosis vs Trichomonas vaginitis vs Candidal · 2025 P2 Q70

Q112. A 28-year-old P₂L₂ presents to Gynaecology OPD with complaints of malodorous vaginal discharge. On examination, the discharge was found to be greyish white in colour and adherent to vaginal walls. Which one of the following is a bedside diagnostic criterion for the causative organism?

  1. Presence of RBCs in vaginal smear
  2. Vaginal pH < 4.5
  3. Positive 10% potassium hydroxide test
  4. Positive NAAT test

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 450  ·  Rapid Revision — page 213

Bacterial vaginosis vs Trichomonas vaginitis vs Candidal · 2025 P2 Q80

Q113. Which of the following are Amsel’s diagnostic criteria? I. Vaginal pH > 4.5 II. Positive Whiff test III. Presence of clue cells > 20% IV. Positive bacterial vaginal culture Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. I, II and III
  2. I, II and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 455  ·  Rapid Revision — page 213

Abortion · 2020 P1 Q91

Q114. A young primigravida with 11 weeks pregnancy presents with sudden onset pain and swelling of left lower limb. Homan’s sign is positive. Duplex ultrasonogram shows non-compressibility of veins in the affected region, with absent flow. The drug of choice for treatment is:

  1. Enoxaparin
  2. Amoxycillin–Clavulanic acid
  3. Warfarin
  4. Limb elevation only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 30  ·  Rapid Revision — page 216

Abortion · 2020 P2 Q73

Q115. Common trisomy’s resulting in spontaneous abortion are all EXCEPT:

  1. Trisomy 21
  2. Trisomy 18
  3. Trisomy 16
  4. Trisomy 1

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 57  ·  Rapid Revision — page 216

Abortion · 2021 P2 Q74

Q116. Which of the following are the clinical features of septic abortion? 1. Persistent tachycardia ≥ 90 bpm 2. Impaired mental status 3. Hypothermia Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 129  ·  Rapid Revision — page 216

Abortion · 2022 P2 Q50

Q117. Missed abortion is not diagnosed if:

  1. vaginal bleed is brownish in colour
  2. uterus is smaller than gestational age
  3. external os is closed
  4. USG shows fetus with cardiac activity

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 189  ·  Rapid Revision — page 216

Abortion · 2024 P2 Q55

Q118. A patient, who is 2 months pregnant, reports to a hospital with complaints of increased vaginal bleeding and pain in lower abdomen. Internal examination reveals dilated internal os of cervix and products of conception are felt through it. What is her likely clinical diagnosis?

  1. Threatened abortion
  2. Inevitable abortion
  3. Septic abortion
  4. Incomplete abortion

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 338  ·  Rapid Revision — page 216

True Labor / Onset · 2023 P2 Q46

Q119. Which of the following are the characteristics of true labor pains? 1. Intensity and duration of contractions increase progressively 2. Progressive effacement and dilatation of the cervix 3. Formation of the ‘bag of forewaters’ 4. Pain is confined to lower abdomen and groin Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 253

True Labor / Onset · 2024 P2 Q45

Q120. Which of the following features are correct regarding onset of true labour? 1. Regular uterine contractions 2. Progressive cervical dilation and effacement 3. Presence of show 4. Labour and delivery are synonymous Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 335

True Labor / Onset · 2024 P2 Q48

Q121. Onset of labour is initiated by which of the following? 1. Uterine distension 2. Increased CRH and ACTH from foetal hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis 3. Increased level of progesterone immediately before labour 4. Increased synthesis of myometrial receptors for oxytocin due to effect of oestrogen Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 336

Stages & Progress of Labor · 2023 P2 Q52

Q122. The first stage of labor starts from:

  1. Full dilatation of cervix to the expulsion of the fetus from the birth canal
  2. Maternal bearing down efforts and ends with the delivery of the baby
  3. The onset of true labor pains and ends with the full dilatation of cervix
  4. The formation of bag of waters

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 254

Stages & Progress of Labor · 2021 P2 Q51

Q123. The normal rate of dilatation of the cervix in a primigravida in the active phase of labor is:

  1. 0·25 cm/hour
  2. 0·5 cm/hour
  3. 0·75 cm/hour
  4. 1 cm/hour

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 123

Stages & Progress of Labor · 2024 P2 Q46

Q124. According to the WHO Intrapartum Care Guidelines, 2018, the active phase of labour starts from what dilation of cervix?

  1. 3 cm
  2. 4 cm
  3. 5 cm
  4. 6 cm

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 335

Stages & Progress of Labor · 2025 P2 Q58

Q125. According to WHO Intrapartum Care Guidelines 2018, which one of the following is correct about duration of first stage labour?

  1. Duration of latent phase of primigravida has not been established
  2. Duration of active stage of multigravida should not exceed 6 hours
  3. Duration of active stage of primigravida should not exceed 8 hours
  4. Duration of active stage of primigravida should not exceed 18 hours

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 444

Stages & Progress of Labor · 2022 P2 Q41

Q126. During the first stage of labour, the intrauterine pressure is increased up to:

  1. 2–3 mm of Hg
  2. 8–10 mm of Hg
  3. 40–50 mm of Hg
  4. 100–120 mm of Hg

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 186

Stages & Progress of Labor · 2023 P2 Q51

Q127. Secondary arrest of dilatation during the process of labor may be due to which of the following factors? 1. Poor uterine contractions 2. Cessation of cervical dilatation despite strong uterine contractions 3. Disproportion and malpresentation Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 254

Cardinal Movements · 2020 P2 Q80

Q128. Consider the following cardinal movements of mechanism of normal labor: 1. Engagement 2. Internal rotation 3. Flexion 4. Restitution 5. Crowning 6. External rotation. What is the correct sequence of movements in labor in occipito-lateral position?

  1. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
  2. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 and 6
  3. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
  4. 3, 1, 2, 4, 6 and 5

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 58

Partograph · 2020 P2 Q59

Q129. Which one of the following is NOT a component of active phase in the partograph?

  1. Acceleration phase
  2. Phase of maximum slope
  3. Phase of deceleration
  4. Phase of expulsion

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 53

Partograph · 2020 P2 Q61

Q130. The components of partograph are all EXCEPT:

  1. Time
  2. Fetal heart rate
  3. Maternal respiratory rate
  4. Maternal urine analysis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 53

Partograph · 2020 P2 Q62

Q131. Which of the following information are provided by partograph? 1. Colour of liquor 2. Uterine contractions with duration and frequency 3. Dilatation of cervix Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 53

Vaginal Examination · 2021 P2 Q71

Q132. Which of the following are indications of vaginal examinations during labour? 1. To stretch the vagina intermittently 2. At the onset of labour 3. To monitor progress of labour 4. Following rupture of membranes Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 128

Third Stage / Placental Separation · 2020 P2 Q78

Q133. Which one of the following is NOT a sign of separation of placenta?

  1. Uterus becomes globular, firm and ballotable
  2. The fundal height reduces further
  3. Slight bulging in the suprapubic region
  4. Apparent lengthening of the cord with slight gush of vaginal bleeding

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 58

Third Stage / Placental Separation · 2023 P2 Q47

Q134. Which are the parts of active management of the third stage of labor? 1. Injection oxytocin 10 units IM within 1 minute of delivery of baby 2. Injection oxytocin 10 units IM at the birth of the first twin in twin pregnancy 3. Controlled cord traction 4. Delayed cord clamping as per indications Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 253

Third Stage / Placental Separation · 2022 P2 Q52

Q135. Which of the following are indications for early clamping of umbilical cord at delivery? 1. Rh incompatibility 2. Baby born to a diabetic mother 3. Maternal anemia 4. Birth asphyxia Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 190

Third Stage / Placental Separation · 2025 P2 Q56

Q136. The Matthews Duncan process has been described for:

  1. marginal separation of placenta in normal labour
  2. central separation of placenta in normal labour
  3. controlled contraction in active management of third stage of labour
  4. reposition of acute inversion of uterus following vaginal delivery

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 443

Birthing Position / Oxytocin · 2025 P2 Q59

Q137. According to WHO Intrapartum Care Guidelines 2018, which of the following are correct about birthing position? I. For a woman without epidural analgesia, adoption of birthing position is individual woman’s choice. II. For a woman without epidural analgesia, upright birthing position may be adopted. III. For a woman with epidural analgesia, lithotomy and supine position only are recommended. Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 444

Birthing Position / Oxytocin · 2025 P2 Q49

Q138. A primigravida at 38 weeks pregnancy was put on oxytocin drip in view of slow labour at the rate of 30 mIU/min by the newly appointed registrar. She complains of confusion and starts throwing fits. What electrolyte imbalance is expected to have happened in this case?

  1. Hypokalemia
  2. Hyponatremia
  3. Hypocalcemia
  4. Hypernatremia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 440

GTD (gestational trophoblastic disease) · 2022 P2 Q60

Q139. Which of the following are correct regarding Placental Site Trophoblastic Tumour (PSTT)? 1. Low serum β-hCG 2. Composed mainly of cytotrophoblast 3. Highly responsive to chemo radiation 4. Local invasion into myometrium Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 192  ·  Rapid Revision — page 222

GTD (gestational trophoblastic disease) · 2023 P2 Q44

Q140. Which of the following are the clinical features of molar pregnancy? (1) History of amenorrhea and vaginal bleeding (2) History of expulsion of grape-like vesicles (3) Patient has excessive vomiting Options:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 252  ·  Rapid Revision — page 222

GTD (gestational trophoblastic disease) · 2024 P2 Q68

Q141. Which one of the following is correct regarding choriocarcinoma?

  1. Vaginal bleeding is the commonest presenting symptom
  2. About 20–30% of patients with molar pregnancies develop choriocarcinoma
  3. Primary site of involvement is fallopian tube
  4. Highly resistant tumour to chemotherapy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 344  ·  Rapid Revision — page 222

GTD (gestational trophoblastic disease) · 2024 P2 Q70

Q142. Which one of the following drugs is most effective in the treatment of gestational trophoblastic neoplasia?

  1. Cisplatin
  2. Methotrexate
  3. Gemcitabine
  4. None

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 345  ·  Rapid Revision — page 222

Twins Pregnancy · 2022 P2 Q69

Q143. Which of the following are the various treatment options for Twin-Twin Transfusion Syndrome (TTTS)? 1. Septostomy 2. Laser photocoagulation 3. Selective fetal reduction Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 195  ·  Rapid Revision — page 225

Twins Pregnancy · 2025 P2 Q60

Q144. Twin pregnancy should have ultrasound at 10–13 weeks to confirm which of the following? I. Number of foetus II. Viability of foetus III. Chorionicity of twins IV. Malformation in either foetus Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. I, II and III only
  2. I and III only
  3. II and IV only
  4. I, II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 445  ·  Rapid Revision — page 225

Placenta previa (PP) · 2020 P2 Q71

Q145. Which one of the following is NOT a risk factor for the development of placenta previa?

  1. Maternal age
  2. Smoking
  3. Previous caesarean section
  4. Maternal anemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 56  ·  Rapid Revision — page 228

Abruptio Placenta · 2020 P2 Q72

Q146. Common clinical presentations of moderate to severe abruption are all EXCEPT:

  1. Uterine tenderness
  2. Fetal distress
  3. Unexplained pre term labour
  4. Prolonged labour

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 57  ·  Rapid Revision — page 229

PCOS = Stein-Leventhal Syndrome · 2020 P2 Q75

Q147. Diagnostic criteria for PCOD are: 1. Oligo/amenorrhea 2. Hyperandrogenism 3. Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound Which of the above are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 57  ·  Rapid Revision — page 229

PCOS = Stein-Leventhal Syndrome · 2021 P1 Q63

Q148. Hirsutism is seen in which of the following? 1. Polycystic ovarian syndrome 2. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Ovarian tumour Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 88  ·  Rapid Revision — page 229

PCOS = Stein-Leventhal Syndrome · 2024 P1 Q30

Q149. A diagnosis of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome requires the presence of which of the following clinical features?. 1. Menstrual irregularity 2. Clinical or biochemical androgen excess 3. Multiple cysts in the ovaries 4. BMI < 18.5 kg/m² Select the correct answer using the code below

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 288  ·  Rapid Revision — page 229

PCOS = Stein-Leventhal Syndrome · 2022 P2 Q65

Q150. In the PALM-COEIN classification by FIGO for abnormal uterine bleeding, ovulatory dysfunction is the cause in which one of the following conditions?

  1. Adenomyosis
  2. Pelvic inflammatory disease
  3. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
  4. Ovarian cancer

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 194  ·  Rapid Revision — page 229

PCOS = Stein-Leventhal Syndrome · 2025 P2 Q65

Q151. Causes of AUB are subdivided by the acronym PALM-COEIN. What are the characteristics of PALM causes? I. Structural lesions II. Diagnosed by ultrasound III. Confirmed by histopathology Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. I and II only
  2. I and III only
  3. I, II and III
  4. II and III only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 449  ·  Rapid Revision — page 229

Endometrial Sampling · 2021 P2 Q58

Q152. Endometrial sampling for diagnosis of ovulation is done on which day of menstrual cycle?

  1. 8th – 10th day
  2. 12th day
  3. 14th day
  4. 21st to 23rd day

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 124

Endometrial Sampling · 2023 P2 Q57

Q153. Which of the following days of the menstrual cycle is best for endometrial sampling to diagnose ovulation?

  1. 8th – 10th day
  2. 12th – 14th day
  3. 16th – 20th day
  4. 21st – 23rd day

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 256

Hysterosalpingography (HSG) · 2020 P2 Q64

Q154. Hysterosalpingography (HSG) is least helpful in detecting which of the following?

  1. Tubal patency
  2. Pelvic adhesions
  3. Asherman syndrome
  4. Congenital uterine anomaly

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 55

Hysterosalpingography (HSG) · 2023 P2 Q58

Q155. A 27-year-old female married for 3 years regularly cohabiting with husband presents to Gynaecology OPD with complaints of inability to conceive for 2 years. During clinical evaluation, hysterosalpingography was done which revealed irregular outline of uterine cavity and rigid fallopian tubes with nodulations. Most likely cause for this condition is:

  1. Genital Herpes
  2. Syphilis
  3. Genital Tuberculosis
  4. Gonorrhoea

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 256

Hysteroscopy / Uterine Anomaly · 2024 P2 Q58

Q156. Which of the following operative procedures is/are confirmatory for the diagnosis of bicornuate uterus?

  1. Dilation with curettages
  2. Hysteroscopy
  3. Hysteroscopy and laparoscopy
  4. Hysterectomy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 340

Tubal Surgery / Infertility · 2024 P2 Q75

Q157. Which of the following are factors for poor outcome following tuboplasty? 1. Dense pelvic adhesions 2. Length of reconstructed tube less than 8 cm 3. Bilateral hydrosalpinx 4. Reversal after 5 years of sterilization procedure Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 347

Puerperal blues vs Postpartum depression vs Postpartum psychosis · 2025 P2 Q53

Q158. Which one of the following is correct regarding postpartum psychosis?

  1. There is often no family history of psychosis
  2. Its onset is usually within 4 days of delivery
  3. Recurrence rate in subsequent pregnancy is 60–70%
  4. Electroconvulsive therapy is the first treatment of choice

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 442  ·  Rapid Revision — page 234

Puerperal blues vs Postpartum depression vs Postpartum psychosis · 2025 P2 Q55

Q159. Which of the following are correct regarding puerperal blues? I. Its incidence is around 50%. II. There is no specific metabolic or endocrine derangement. III. Treatment is reassurance and psychological support. Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. I and II only
  2. II and III only
  3. I and III only
  4. I, II and III

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 443  ·  Rapid Revision — page 234

Cord Prolapse · 2022 P2 Q77

Q160. Which of the following are included in the management of cord prolapse during delivery? 1. Bladder emptying 2. Knee-chest position of the patient 3. Preferably caesarean delivery 4. Lifting up the presenting part of the cord Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 197  ·  Rapid Revision — page 235

Cord Prolapse · 2025 P2 Q51

Q161. Which of the following factors are associated with cord prolapse during labour? I. Malpresentations II. Contracted pelvis III. Stabilizing induction IV. Prematurity Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. I, II, III and IV
  2. I, II and IV only
  3. I, II and III only
  4. III and IV only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 441  ·  Rapid Revision — page 235

Shoulder Dystocia · 2025 P2 Q48

Q162. Which of the following statements are correct regarding shoulder dystocia? I. It can be predicted during early labour. II. Anencephaly is a risk factor. III. Turtle neck sign is present. IV. Episiotomy should always be given. Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. I, II and III
  2. I, II and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 439  ·  Rapid Revision — page 236

External Cephalic Version (ECV) vs IPV · 2020 P2 Q55

Q163. Successful version of breech presentation is likely in case all of the following EXCEPT:

  1. Breech with extended legs
  2. Complete breech with sacroanterior position
  3. Non engaged breech
  4. Adequate amniotic fluid

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 52  ·  Rapid Revision — page 238

External Cephalic Version (ECV) vs IPV · 2021 P2 Q43

Q164. Which of the following are contraindications to external cephalic version in antenatal management of breech presentation? 1. Antepartum haemorrhage 2. Multiple pregnancy 3. Reactive Non Stress Test 4. Severe oligohydramnios Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 120  ·  Rapid Revision — page 238

External Cephalic Version (ECV) vs IPV · 2025 P2 Q43

Q165. Which of the following are contraindications to External Cephalic Version (ECV) in breech? I. Pregnancy less than 36 weeks II. Multiple pregnancy III. Previous cesarean delivery IV. Rhesus isoimmunization Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. I, III and IV
  2. II, III and IV
  3. I, II and IV
  4. I, II and III

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 435  ·  Rapid Revision — page 238

Gestational age estimation · 2025 P2 Q97

Q166. “Small for Date” (SFD) babies, also known as “small for gestational age” babies, weigh less than what percentile for the gestational age?

  1. 2nd percentile
  2. 5th percentile
  3. 10th percentile
  4. 20th percentile

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 461  ·  Rapid Revision — page 240

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