Direct from Paediatric · 2025 P2 Q97

Q1. “Small for Date” (SFD) babies, also known as “small for gestational age” babies, weigh less than what percentile for the gestational age?

1. 2nd percentile
2. 5th percentile
3. 10th percentile
4. 20th percentile

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 461  ·  Rapid Revision — page 117

Direct from Paediatric · 2022 P1 Q112

Q2. Which one of the following is a ‘Danger Sign’ for a newborn baby?

1. Temperature between 36.0°C and 36.5°C
2. Respiratory rate more than 60/min
3. Heart rate of 120/min
4. Weight loss of 8% within first week of life

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 170  ·  Rapid Revision — page 117

Direct from Paediatric · 2022 P1 Q113

Q3. The codes given below represent specific type of permanent teeth: 1. Central and lateral incisors 2. Canines 3. Premolars 4. Molars. The eruption of which of the following combinations will be close to menarche in girls?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 170  ·  Rapid Revision — page 117

Direct from Paediatric · 2022 P2 Q118

Q4. In a newborn, the Apgar score has been recorded at 1 minute of birth. The doctor recorded: Heart rate 92/min; Respiratory effort slow, irregular; Muscle tone flaccid; Reflex response no response; Colour body pink, extremities blue. Which one of the following best reflects the Apgar score of this newborn on a scale of 0 to 10?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 206  ·  Rapid Revision — page 117

Direct from Paediatric · 2023 P1 Q98

Q5. A full-term baby born with a birth weight of 2000 g comes for a well-baby visit at two months of age. Which of the following nutritional supplements would you advise?

1. Vitamin D orally 200 IU/day up to 3 months of age
2. Vitamin D orally 200 IU/day up to 1 year of age
3. Iron orally 2 mg/kg/day up to 3 months of age
4. Iron orally 2 mg/kg/day up to 1 year of age

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 233  ·  Rapid Revision — page 117

Direct from Paediatric · 2023 P1 Q100

Q6. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding a normal newborn’s growth?

1. Weight loss may be 8–10% of birth weight in the initial two weeks of life.
2. Birth weight is regained by 7–10 days of age.
3. Birth weight is regained within the first week of life.
4. Weight loss may be 12–15% of birth weight in the initial two weeks of life.

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 234  ·  Rapid Revision — page 117

Direct from Paediatric · 2025 P1 Q114

Q7. A teen boy with birth weight of 2·8 kg is born to a primigravida mother through vaginal delivery and cried immediately after birth. Which of the following statements are correct regarding his initial care after birth? I. The baby should be initiated on breastfeeding within one hour of birth II. The baby should be kept in a separate area from the mother III. The baby should be administered with 0·5 mg of vitamin K intramuscularly IV. The baby should be thoroughly examined for congenital malformations from head to toe Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I and II
2. I and III
3. II and III
4. I and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 411  ·  Rapid Revision — page 117

Direct from Paediatric · 2020 P1 Q98

Q8. A newborn weighing 1.5 kg at birth presents at 6 hours of age with lethargy, weak and high pitched cry and difficulty in feeding. What is the next step in management?

1. Estimation of blood sugar
2. Estimation of serum calcium
3. Supplementary oxygen
4. Bedside electrocardiogram

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 32  ·  Rapid Revision — page 117

Direct from Paediatric · 2024 P1 Q59

Q9. A 'slapped cheek' rash is characteristically seen in which of the following infections ?

1. Measles
2. Rubella
3. Chickenpox
4. Erythema Infectiosum

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 297  ·  Rapid Revision — page 117

Direct from Paediatric · 2020 P1 Q120

Q10. Which one of the following facilities has been established at district hospitals in India to strengthen the care of low-birth-weight babies and sick newborns?

1. Special Newborn Care Units
2. Newborn Treatment Units
3. Newborn Stabilization Units
4. Shishu Suraksha Units

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 37  ·  Rapid Revision — page 117

Preterm / Term / Post-term · 2023 P2 Q66

Q11. Which of the following can be a complication in the baby due to post-maturity of pregnancy? 1. Meconium aspiration 2. Hypoglycemia 3. Intraventricular hemorrhage 4. Polycythemia Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 258

IUGR / Fetal Growth Restriction · 2022 P2 Q49

Q12. Which of the following fetal infections are associated with significant intrauterine growth restriction? 1. Cytomegalovirus infection 2. Rubella infection 3. Toxoplasmosis 4. Human papillomavirus infection Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 189  ·  Rapid Revision — page 122

IUGR / Fetal Growth Restriction · 2023 P1 Q99

Q13. Which of the following are common problems in babies with intrauterine growth restriction delivered at term gestation? 1. Hypothermia 2. Hypoglycemia 3. Hypocalcemia Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 234  ·  Rapid Revision — page 122

IUGR / Fetal Growth Restriction · 2023 P2 Q69

Q14. Clinical features of an infant with Fetal Growth Retardation at birth include which of the following? 1. Physical features give ‘an old man look.’ 2. Baby is alert, reflexes are normal. 3. There is a presence of weight deficit. 4. Thick fat accumulates around the shoulders of the baby. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 259  ·  Rapid Revision — page 122

IUGR / Fetal Growth Restriction · 2025 P2 Q62

Q15. Which of the following are the predictive factors for Fetal Growth Restriction (FGR)? I. Low level of maternal 1st trimester Beta hCG II. Abnormal uterine artery Doppler at 20–24 weeks of pregnancy III. Fetal echogenic bowel on ultrasound IV. Maternal medical disorder Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 447  ·  Rapid Revision — page 122

IUGR / Fetal Growth Restriction · 2025 P2 Q63

Q16. Which of the following is the primary surveillance tool in the Growth Restricted Foetus?

1. Uterine artery doppler
2. Umbilical venous pulsation
3. Middle cerebral artery doppler
4. Umbilical artery doppler

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 447  ·  Rapid Revision — page 122

IUGR / Fetal Growth Restriction · 2025 P2 Q97

Q17. “Small for Date” (SFD) babies, also known as “small for gestational age” babies, weigh less than what percentile for the gestational age?

1. 2nd percentile
2. 5th percentile
3. 10th percentile
4. 20th percentile

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 461  ·  Rapid Revision — page 122

Infant of Diabetic mother · 2025 P2 Q61

Q18. Which of the following are neonatal complications of maternal diabetes during pregnancy? I. Hyperbilirubinemia II. Hypercalcemia III. Cardiomyopathy IV. Hypoglycemia Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 446  ·  Rapid Revision — page 126

Sequence Of Changes Of Puberty · 2020 P1 Q117

Q19. A 12 year old child presents with Delayed Puberty and delayed bone age. His growth records reveal that he was growing normally till 1 year of age, after which both his height and weight fell to below the third centile for age. Subsequently, he continued to grow below the third centile with normal height velocity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Familial short stature
2. Constitutional growth delay
3. Growth hormone deficiency
4. Skeletal dysplasia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 36  ·  Rapid Revision — page 127

Sequence Of Changes Of Puberty · 2021 P2 Q62

Q20. Which of the following are causes of GnRH dependent precocious puberty? 1. Constitutional 2. Tubercular Encephalitis 3. McCune-Albright syndrome 4. Primary hypothyroidism Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 125  ·  Rapid Revision — page 127

Treatment to newborn baby at birth · 2025 P1 Q114

Q21. A teen boy with birth weight of 2·8 kg is born to a primigravida mother through vaginal delivery and cried immediately after birth. Which of the following statements are correct regarding his initial care after birth ? I. The baby should be initiated on breastfeeding within one hour of birth II. The baby should be kept in a separate area from the mother III. The baby should be administered with 0·5 mg of vitamin K intramuscularly IV. The baby should be thoroughly examined for congenital malformations from head to toe Select the answer using the code given below :

1. I and II
2. I and III
3. II and III
4. I and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 411  ·  Rapid Revision — page 128

Caput Succedaneum vs Cephalohematoma · 2020 P1 Q105

Q22. All are true for a Cephalohematoma in a newborn EXCEPT:

1. It is located over the parietal bones in the subcutaneous plane
2. It may be associated with hyperbilirubinemia
3. It increases in size in the first 12–24 hours
4. It can take 3–6 weeks to resolve

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 33  ·  Rapid Revision — page 129

Breastfeeding · 2020 P1 Q103

Q23. Which one of the following is a sign of good attachment during breastfeeding?

1. The baby’s nose is at the level of the nipple
2. The baby’s chin touches the breast
3. Most of the nipple is in the mouth and the lower areola is visible
4. The baby’s lower lip is inverted

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 33  ·  Rapid Revision — page 129

Breastfeeding · 2021 P2 Q53

Q24. Compared to breast milk, colostrum has

1. higher fat content
2. higher carbohydrate content
3. higher protein content
4. lower water content

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 123  ·  Rapid Revision — page 129

Breastfeeding · 2022 P1 Q105

Q25. Which one of the following statements is correct in context of human breast milk?

1. The concentration of lactose is 5g/dL
2. The protein content is higher than that in animal milk
3. Human milk does not contain taurine and cysteine like animal milk and formula milk
4. Human milk contains omega 2 and omega 6 (very long chain) fatty acids

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 167  ·  Rapid Revision — page 129

Breastfeeding · 2024 P1 Q97

Q26. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding physiology of breastfeeding?

1. Prolactin is responsible for ejection of milk from the glands
2. Night feeding is important for maintaining prolactin reflex
3. Oxytocin is responsible for milk secretion by the alveolar epithelial cells
4. Oxytocin is secreted by the anterior pituitary

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 310  ·  Rapid Revision — page 129

Breastfeeding · 2024 P1 Q116

Q27. Consider the following statements about human breast milk: 75% of breast milk content is water. Breast milk is poor in taurine and cysteine. Breast milk is particularly rich in omega 2 and omega 6 fatty acids. High lactose content of breast milk helps in absorption of calcium. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 3 and 4
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 3 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 316  ·  Rapid Revision — page 129

Breastfeeding · 2024 P1 Q117

Q28. Which of the following are signs of good attachment during breastfeeding? 1. The baby’s nose is at the level of the nipple. 2. The baby’s mouth is wide open. 3. The baby’s chin touches the breast. 4. The baby’s lower lip is everted. Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 317  ·  Rapid Revision — page 129

Breastfeeding · 2020 P1 Q107

Q29. Which one of the following drugs is contraindicated in a mother who is breastfeeding her infant?

1. Bromocriptine
2. Chlorpromazine
3. Acyclovir
4. Morphine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 34  ·  Rapid Revision — page 129

Breastfeeding · 2022 P1 Q97

Q30. An infant was born at 30 weeks of gestation and weighs 1.2 kg at birth. Which of the following is the recommended initial feeding method?

1. Intravenous fluids only
2. Feeding by spoon and katori
3. Breastfeeding
4. Orogastric feeding

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 166  ·  Rapid Revision — page 129

Breastfeeding · 2022 P1 Q98

Q31. A newborn delivered at 32 weeks gestation is started on spoon feeds after birth. On feeding with spoon, the baby demonstrates some spilling and coughing. What is the next step in management?

1. Orogastric or nasogastric tube feeding
2. Intravenous fluid therapy
3. Gastrostomy tube feeding
4. Breastfeeding

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 166  ·  Rapid Revision — page 129

Breastfeeding · 2025 P2 Q54

Q32. Which of the following are correct in the treatment of cracked nipple? I. Correct attachment (Latch on) will provide immediate relief from pain and rapid healing. II. If pain, mother should use breast pump and the infant is fed with the expressed milk. III. Miconazole lotion is applied over the nipple as well as in the baby’s mouth if there is oral thrush. Select the answer using the code given below:

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 443  ·  Rapid Revision — page 129

Breastfeeding · 2023 P2 Q48

Q33. Which of the following are correct regarding acute mastitis? (1) It usually occurs in the first 2 - 4 weeks postpartum. (2) Microscopic examination of breast milk shows leukocyte count more than 10^6/mL and bacterial count more than 10^3/mL. (3) Common organisms are Bacteroides, E. coli, and Klebsiella. (4) The source of infection is the infant's nose and throat. Options:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 253  ·  Rapid Revision — page 129

Breastfeeding · 2023 P1 Q98

Q34. A full-term baby born with a birth weight of 2000 g comes for a well-baby visit at two months of age. Which of the following nutritional supplements would you advise?

1. Vitamin D orally 200 IU/day up to 3 months of age
2. Vitamin D orally 200 IU/day up to 1 year of age
3. Iron orally 2 mg/kg/day up to 3 months of age
4. Iron orally 2 mg/kg/day up to 1 year of age

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 233  ·  Rapid Revision — page 129

Neonatal Resuscitation / CPR / PALS · 2021 P1 Q2

Q35. A victim is found unconscious at the roadside. As a trained rescuer, after checking the victim’s response and pulse, you decide on resuscitation. What is the recommended ratio of chest compression to ventilation during CPR?

1. 90 : 4
2. 60 : 2
3. 30 : 2
4. 60 : 1

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 71  ·  Rapid Revision — page 132

Neonatal Resuscitation / CPR / PALS · 2021 P1 Q99

Q36. The recommended ratio for chest compression to breaths administered by a single rescuer during resuscitation of a child in cardiac arrest is:

1. 15:2
2. 30:2
3. 14:1
4. 7:1

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 98  ·  Rapid Revision — page 132

Neonatal Resuscitation / CPR / PALS · 2023 P1 Q109

Q37. A baby is delivered at 34 weeks’ gestation and found to be apneic at birth. After performing the initial steps of resuscitation, the baby is still apneic. The next step should be:

1. tactile stimulation
2. positive pressure ventilation using 30% oxygen
3. positive pressure ventilation using 100% oxygen
4. chest compression

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 236  ·  Rapid Revision — page 132

Neonatal Resuscitation / CPR / PALS · 2025 P1 Q119

Q38. Which of the following are advantages of endotracheal intubation, in a child requiring paediatric advanced life support? I. Inspiratory time can be controlled II. Positive end-expiratory pressure can be provided III. Peak expiratory pressure can be controlled IV. Reduced risk of aspiration of gastric contents Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 414  ·  Rapid Revision — page 132

Cord Clamping · 2022 P2 Q52

Q39. Which of the following are indications for early clamping of umbilical cord at delivery? 1. Rh incompatibility 2. Baby born to a diabetic mother 3. Maternal anemia 4. Birth asphyxia Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 190  ·  Rapid Revision — page 135

Cord Clamping · 2023 P2 Q47

Q40. Which are the parts of active management of the third stage of labor? 1. Injection oxytocin 10 units IM within 1 minute of delivery of baby 2. Injection oxytocin 10 units IM at the birth of the first twin in twin pregnancy 3. Controlled cord traction 4. Delayed cord clamping as per indications Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 253  ·  Rapid Revision — page 135

Neonatal Jaundice · 2021 P2 Q103

Q41. A 6-week-old infant presents with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following could be a likely diagnosis?

1. Dubin Johnson syndrome
2. Galactosemia
3. Rotor syndrome
4. Congenital hypothyroidism

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 136  ·  Rapid Revision — page 135

Neonatal Jaundice · 2022 P1 Q23

Q42. Which of the following are correct in respect of jaundice? 1. Patients complain of darkening of urine before they notice jaundice 2. Jaundice is usually detectable with a serum bilirubin level of over 1.8 mg/dL 3. In Gilbert syndrome, jaundice is more noticeable after fasting Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 147  ·  Rapid Revision — page 135

Neonatal Jaundice · 2022 P1 Q102

Q43. A 3-day-old newborn presents with jaundice since birth. Examination reveals pallor and hepatosplenomegaly. The newborn also has a cephalhematoma. Which one of the following is the most important indicator to the diagnosis of pathologic jaundice?

1. Pallor
2. Hepatosplenomegaly
3. Clinical jaundice since birth
4. Cephalhematoma

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 167  ·  Rapid Revision — page 135

Neonatal Jaundice · 2023 P1 Q83

Q44. Consider the following statements with regard to jaundice: 1. Presence of scleral icterus indicates a serum bilirubin level of at least 3 mg/dL. 2. If the examiner suspects scleral icterus, the second site to examine is underneath the tongue. 3. In long-standing jaundice, the skin may become green due to reduction of bilirubin to biliverdin. 4. Sclerae have a particular affinity for bilirubin due to its high elastin content. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 229  ·  Rapid Revision — page 135

Neonatal Jaundice · 2023 P1 Q84

Q45. Carotenoderma, due to ingestion of excessive amounts of carotene-containing fruits and vegetables, can be distinguished from jaundice by sparing of which of the following?

1. Palms
2. Soles
3. Nasolabial folds
4. Sclerae

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 230  ·  Rapid Revision — page 135

Neonatal Jaundice · 2025 P1 Q96

Q46. A 32 year old man presents with history of recurrent jaundice over the previous decade. Family gives history of the patient having episodes of facial grimacing. Which one of the following is a clinical clue to the diagnosis?

1. Adenoma sebaceum in the mid face
2. Erythema nodosum on the skin
3. Kayser-Fleischer rings in the cornea
4. Osler’s nodes at the finger tips

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 405  ·  Rapid Revision — page 135

Neonatal Jaundice · 2021 P1 Q103

Q47. A 6-week-old infant presents with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following could be a likely diagnosis?

1. Dubin Johnson syndrome
2. Galactosemia
3. Rotor syndrome
4. Congenital hypothyroidism

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 100  ·  Rapid Revision — page 135

Neonatal Jaundice · 2025 P1 Q22

Q48. Consider the following with regard to Gilbert Syndrome I. Autosomal recessive trait of a mutation in gene for UDP-glucuronyl transferase enzyme. II. Elevation of unconjugated bilirubin. III. No stigmata of chronic liver disease other than jaundice. IV. Early Liver biopsy recommended in patients with possible Gilbert Syndrome. Which of the above are correct ?

1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I, II and III
4. III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 377  ·  Rapid Revision — page 135

Viral hepatitis · 2020 P1 Q28

Q49. The most common cause of acute hepatitis outbreaks in India is:

1. Hepatitis E
2. Hepatitis C
3. Hepatitis B
4. Hepatitis A

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 13  ·  Rapid Revision — page 139

Viral hepatitis · 2021 P1 Q22

Q50. Which one of the following viruses is associated with development of Acute Liver Failure and high mortality in pregnancy?

1. Hepatitis A virus
2. Hepatitis E virus
3. Hepatitis C virus
4. Hepatitis B virus

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 77  ·  Rapid Revision — page 139

Viral hepatitis · 2023 P1 Q16

Q51. Which of the following are the risk factors for the acquisition of hepatitis C infection? Faeco-oral transmission Intravenous drug abuse Vertical transmission Sharing toothbrush and razors Select the correct answer using the code below.

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 211  ·  Rapid Revision — page 139

Viral hepatitis · 2023 P1 Q19

Q52. The serologic marker detectable during ‘window’ period of hepatitis B infection is

1. anti-HBsAb
2. anti-HBc IgG
3. anti-HBc IgM
4. HBeAg

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 211  ·  Rapid Revision — page 139

Viral hepatitis · 2023 P1 Q21

Q53. Which of the following statements are correct for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B with pegylated interferon (PEG-IFN)? PEG-IFN is poorly tolerated drug as compared to nucleoside analogues. Resistance to treatment with PEG-IFN is common than nucleoside analogues. PEG-IFN is not useful in patients of cirrhosis. PEG-IFN is administered every week for 48 weeks. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 3 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 2 and 4
4. 1 and 3 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 211  ·  Rapid Revision — page 139

Viral hepatitis · 2023 P1 Q33

Q54. Which of the following viruses can be transmitted via transfusion of infected blood? Hepatitis B virus Hepatitis C virus Human immunodeficiency virus Parvovirus B19 Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 215  ·  Rapid Revision — page 139

Viral hepatitis · 2023 P1 Q81

Q55. In serological investigation of hepatitis B virus infection, presence of hepatitis B e-antigen (HBeAg) is an indicator of

1. active replication of virus in the liver
2. acute liver failure
3. chronic infection with hepatitis B virus
4. inactive carrier phase of infection

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 228  ·  Rapid Revision — page 139

Viral hepatitis · 2023 P1 Q82

Q56. Simultaneous infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV) and hepatitis D virus (HDV) followed by full recovery is associated with the appearance of

1. low titres of anti-HDV antibody, IgM type
2. low titres of anti-HDV antibody, IgA type
3. high titres of anti-HDV antibody, IgM type
4. high titres of anti-HDV antibody, IgG type

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 228  ·  Rapid Revision — page 139

Respiratory Distress in Paediatric age group · 2020 P1 Q108

Q57. The term neonate presents with tachypnea on day 1 after birth. The chest X-ray reveals hyperexpanded lung fields, prominent vascular markings, and prominent interlobar fissure. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

1. Congenital lobar emphysema
2. Diaphragmatic hernia
3. Transient tachypnea of the newborn
4. Tracheoesophageal fistula

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 34  ·  Rapid Revision — page 140

Respiratory Distress in Paediatric age group · 2020 P1 Q104

Q58. A mother with polyhydramnios gives birth to a term newborn infant who develops choking and cyanosis on feeding soon after birth. There is excessive drooling and frothing from the mouth. The most probable diagnosis is:

1. Anorectal malformation
2. Diaphragmatic hernia
3. Arnold Chiari malformation
4. Tracheoesophageal fistula

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 33  ·  Rapid Revision — page 140

Respiratory Distress in Paediatric age group · 2020 P1 Q111

Q59. A 3-year old child develops severe respiratory distress after inhalation of fumes arising from burning plastic. The child is started on supportive ventilation. Which one of the following antidotes needs to be given?

1. Hydroxy cobalamin
2. Amylnitrate
3. Sodium nitrite
4. N-acetyl cysteine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 35  ·  Rapid Revision — page 140

Respiratory Distress in Paediatric age group · 2023 P2 Q66

Q60. Which of the following can be a complication in the baby due to post-maturity of pregnancy? (1) Meconium aspiration (2) Hypoglycemia (3) Intraventricular hemorrhage (4) Polycythemia Options:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 258  ·  Rapid Revision — page 140

Cystic fibrosis · 2020 P1 Q13

Q61. An 18-year-old male has insulin dependent diabetes, with malabsorption syndrome and bilateral upper lobe bronchiectasis. A diagnostic work-up will include all EXCEPT:

1. 24-hour fecal fat-estimation
2. CT-chest
3. Lung biopsy
4. DNA sequencing study

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 10  ·  Rapid Revision — page 146

Cystic fibrosis · 2021 P1 Q29

Q62. Cystic fibrosis disorder is:

1. Autosomal dominant
2. Autosomal recessive
3. X-linked dominant
4. X-linked recessive

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 78  ·  Rapid Revision — page 146

Cystic fibrosis · 2022 P2 Q32

Q63. Cystic fibrosis involves which of the following organs? 1. Lungs 2. Liver 3. Pancreas 4. Kidney Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 183  ·  Rapid Revision — page 146

Cystic fibrosis · 2025 P1 Q10

Q64. Which one of the following correctly denotes the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis?

1. Autosomal Dominant
2. Autosomal Recessive
3. X-linked Dominant
4. X-linked Recessive

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 371  ·  Rapid Revision — page 146

Bronchiectasis · 2020 P1 Q11

Q65. Signet-ring sign on CT-chest is suggestive of:

1. Bronchiectasis
2. Active alveolitis
3. Aspergilloma
4. Sarcoidosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 9  ·  Rapid Revision — page 147

TORCH PROFILE can cause IUGR · 2021 P2 Q96

Q66. The classical triad of congenital defects in Congenital Rubella Syndrome include which of the following? 1. Hydrocephalus 2. Deafness 3. Cardiac malformations 4. Cataract Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 134  ·  Rapid Revision — page 122

TORCH PROFILE can cause IUGR · 2022 P2 Q49

Q67. Which of the following fetal infections are associated with significant intrauterine growth restriction? 1. Cytomegalovirus infection 2. Rubella infection 3. Toxoplasmosis 4. Human papillomavirus infection Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 189  ·  Rapid Revision — page 122

Malnutrition · 2020 P1 Q83

Q68. All of the following are seen in Marasmus EXCEPT:

1. Reduced triceps skinfold
2. Reduced mid arm circumference
3. Protein wasting
4. Decreased body mass index

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 28  ·  Rapid Revision — page 149

Malnutrition · 2021 P1 Q81

Q69. Which one of the following is a hallmark of marasmus?

1. Normal body mass index
2. Serum albumin < 2.8 g/dL
3. Anergy
4. Triceps skin fold < 3 mm

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 93  ·  Rapid Revision — page 149

Diarrhea · 2020 P2 Q98

Q70. How much of Zinc supplement is recommended by WHO and UNICEF for infants less than 6 months of age after an episode of acute diarrhea?

1. 20 mg per day for 10–14 days
2. 10 mg per day for 10–14 days
3. 5 mg per day for 7 days
4. 6 mg per day for 7 days

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 63  ·  Rapid Revision — page 150

Diarrhea · 2020 P2 Q119

Q71. The incidence of diarrhea is highest among infants in the age group of 6–11 months due to all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

1. Declining level of maternal antibodies
2. Introduction of foods which may be contaminated
3. Eruption of teeth
4. Direct contact with human or animal faeces

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 68  ·  Rapid Revision — page 150

Diarrhea · 2022 P1 Q44

Q72. Composition of oral rehydration solution (WHO) is

1. Na–90 m mol/L, K–20 m mol/L, Cl–80 m mol/L, Energy–54 kcal/L
2. Na–80 m mol/L, K–20 m mol/L, Cl–70 m mol/L, Energy–54 kcal/L
3. Na–90 m mol/L, K–40 m mol/L, Cl–80 m mol/L, Energy–27 kcal/L
4. Na–80 m mol/L, K–20 m mol/L, Cl–70 m mol/L, Energy–54 kcal/L

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 152  ·  Rapid Revision — page 150

Meningitis / CSF / Lumbar Puncture · 2020 P1 Q38

Q73. A 60-year-old patient is admitted in emergency with seizure, aphasia and altered sensorium. He has a fever and headache for the preceding 3 days. The CSF examination is unremarkable. What would be the probable diagnosis?

1. Multiple sclerosis (MS)
2. Tubercular meningitis
3. Pyogenic (bacterial) meningitis
4. Viral encephalitis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 16

Meningitis / CSF / Lumbar Puncture · 2020 P1 Q47

Q74. A 35-year-old man presents with history of low grade fever and headache for last five weeks. Clinical examinations are remarkable for signs of meningitis. He undergoes lumbar puncture (LP) and a day later reports worsening headache. Which one of the following features is NOT consistent with diagnosis of “Post-LP” headache?

1. Post-LP headache usually begins within 48 hours
2. Post-LP headache worsens in sitting position
3. Post-LP headache is most severe upon waking up
4. Post-LP headache may improve with caffeine intake

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 19

Meningitis / CSF / Lumbar Puncture · 2022 P1 Q45

Q75. Which of the following are correct regarding tuberculous meningitis? 1. Acid-Fast Bacilli are infrequently seen on direct smear of CSF 2. CSF culture for MTB is the gold standard for diagnosis 3. Xpert MTB/RIF assay is a preferred initial diagnostic option Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 153

Meningitis / CSF / Lumbar Puncture · 2023 P1 Q94

Q76. Which of the following are the features of post-lumbar puncture headache? 1. Dull aching occipitofrontal headache 2. Worse on waking but improves during the day 3. Recumbency usually improves the headache within minutes Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 232

Asha · 2021 P1 Q119

Q77. Which one of the following is the correct schedule for home visits by an Accredited Social Health Activist for facility-born newborn babies?

1. On 1, 3, 7, 14, 21 and 28 days of life
2. On 3, 7, 10, 14, 21 and 28 days of life
3. On 3, 7, 14, 21, 28 and 42 days of life
4. On 7, 14, 21, 28, 35 and 42 days of life

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 104  ·  Rapid Revision — page 151

Asha · 2024 P2 Q117

Q78. Consider the following statements with regard to selection of Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) under NRHM: 1. ASHA must be a woman preferably in the age group of 18 to 25 years. 2. ASHA must have had formal education up to at least class ten. 3. ASHA must be a resident of the village. 4. ASHA may be a married, widowed or divorced woman. Which of the statements given above are correct with regard to process of selection of ASHA?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 363  ·  Rapid Revision — page 151

RBSK (Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram) · 2021 P1 Q120

Q79. Which one of the following diseases is covered under Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK)?

1. Rheumatic heart disease
2. Community acquired pneumonia
3. Systemic onset juvenile idiopathic arthritis
4. Nephrotic syndrome

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 104  ·  Rapid Revision — page 152

RBSK (Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram) · 2022 P1 Q120

Q80. Identification of '4Ds' is a key element of which National Health Programme?

1. IMNCI (Integrated Management of Childhood and Neonatal illness)
2. ICDS (Integrated Child Development Scheme)
3. RBSK (Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram)
4. JSSK (Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram)

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 173  ·  Rapid Revision — page 152

RBSK (Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram) · 2025 P1 Q109

Q81. Which of the following are included as a “Deficiency” under the Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) ? I. Hypothyroidism II. Vitamin A deficiency III. Anemia IV. Vitamin D deficiency Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I,III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 410  ·  Rapid Revision — page 152

Imnci · 2020 P1 Q118

Q82. According to the ‘Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses’ (IMNCI) classification of young infants up to 2 months, which one of the following signs is NOT included in ‘Possible Serious Bacterial Infection’

1. Fast breathing (50 breaths or more per minute)
2. Severe chest indrawing
3. Axillary temperature less than 36.5 °C
4. Movement only when stimulated or no movement at all

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 36  ·  Rapid Revision — page 153

Imnci · 2024 P1 Q104

Q83. Under the Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness, caretakers are advised to return immediately to a health facility, if: 1. Any sick child is not able to drink or breastfeed. 2. Fast breathing or difficult breathing, in a child who has no pneumonia. 3. Blood in stool, in a child with diarrhoea. 4. Conjunctivitis in a child with measles. Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 312  ·  Rapid Revision — page 153

Imnci · 2022 P1 Q112

Q84. Which one of the following is a 'Danger Sign' for a newborn baby?

1. Temperature between 36.0°C and 36.5°C
2. Respiratory rate more than 60/min
3. Heart rate of 120/min
4. Weight loss of 8% within first week of life

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 170  ·  Rapid Revision — page 153

Imnci · 2025 P1 Q102

Q85. The mother of a 14-month-old normally developing baby comes to you for feeding advice. Which of the following would be appropriate for her as per the IMNCI (Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness) Program ? I. Breastfeed as often as the child wants II. Keep the child in your lap and feed with your own hands III. Offer food from the family pot IV. Give 3 to 4 meals each day Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. II, III and IV
2. I, III and IV
3. I, II and III
4. I, II and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 407  ·  Rapid Revision — page 153

Imnci · 2025 P1 Q104

Q86. In a child aged 3½ years with an ear problem which one of these situations merits urgent referral to hospital?

1. Pus seen draining from the ear, and discharge reported for less than 14 days
2. Pus seen draining from the ear, and discharge reported for more than or equal to 14 days
3. Tender swelling behind the ear
4. Pus seen draining from both ears, irrespective of duration

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 408  ·  Rapid Revision — page 153

Pneumonia in children · 2021 P2 Q94

Q87. The recommended dose of cotrimoxazole for treatment of pneumonia in a child weighing 16 kg is

1. One pediatrics tablet twice a day
2. Two pediatrics tablets twice a day
3. Three pediatrics tablets twice a day
4. Four pediatrics tablets twice a day

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 134  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Pneumonia in children · 2024 P1 Q100

Q88. At what cut-off respiratory rate will you consider 'fast breathing' in a 2-year-old child?

1. ≥ 60 per minute
2. ≥ 50 per minute
3. ≥ 40 per minute
4. ≥ 30 per minute

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 310  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Pneumonia in children · 2025 P1 Q103

Q89. For a sick child aged 4 years, which of the following are signs of “severe pneumonia or very severe disease”, as per IMNCI (Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness) Program ? I. Fast breathing (Greater than or equal to 40 breaths per minute) II. Child vomits everything III. Stridor in a calm child IV. Chest indrawing Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. III and IV
4. II and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 408  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Pneumonia in children · 2023 P1 Q119

Q90. According to the WHO clinical criteria, which of the following clinical signs are indicative of ‘severe pneumonia or very severe disease’ in children aged 2 months to 5 years? 1. Convulsions 2. Lower chest indrawing 3. Inability to feed 4. Stridor Select the correct answer using the code below.

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 239  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2025 P1 Q112

Q91. A child can make a tower of 3 blocks, runs, copies his mother while sweeping and has a vocabulary of 8–10 words. His developmental age is

1. 12 months
2. 15 months
3. 18 months
4. 24 months

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 411  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2025 P1 Q113

Q92. A child can ride a tricycle, copies a circle, knows name and gender. The developmental age of this child is

1. 2 years
2. 3 years
3. 4 years
4. 5 years

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 411  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2020 P1 Q109

Q93. A pre-school boy can go upstairs on alternate feet and has also started copying a circle. How many blocks should he be able to build a tower with, without toppling over?

1. 5
2. 7
3. 9
4. More than 10

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 34  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2021 P1 Q106

Q94. A child demonstrates a mature pincer grasp and is able to build a tower of maximum 6 blocks and can make vertical and circular strokes with pencil. His developmental age is around:

1. 12 months
2. 18 months
3. 24 months
4. 36 months

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 100  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2021 P1 Q107

Q95. A typically developing girl is able to creep upstairs, and builds a tower of 2 blocks. Which of the following skills should she also display?

1. Scribbling
2. Running
3. Speaking at least 10 words
4. Exploring drawers

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 101  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2021 P1 Q109

Q96. Which one of the following skills is a normally developing 2-year-old child unable to perform?

1. Unscrewing a lid
2. Turning a doorknob
3. Building a vertical tower of 6 blocks
4. Copying a circle

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 101  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2022 P1 Q99

Q97. A child speaks bisyllables like Ma-Ma and Ba-Ba. He is able to sit without support and looks at the source of sound diagonally. His likely age is

1. 4 months
2. 6 months
3. 8 months
4. 10 months

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 166  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2024 P1 Q98

Q98. Which one of the following fine motor milestones will appear ahead of others?

1. Copies a cross
2. Copies a circle
3. Draws a circle
4. Draws a cross

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 310  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2021 P1 Q110

Q99. Which one of the following statements is age-appropriate for a normally developing 4-month-old infant?

1. The infant can bring his hands to the midline
2. The infant has still not attained partial head control
3. The infant has started to reach out with one hand
4. The infant has started making monosyllable sounds like ‘da’ or ‘pa’

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 101  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2023 P1 Q101

Q100. For developmental assessment of a baby, grasp is best assessed by offering the child

1. a red ring
2. a red cube
3. red pellets
4. multicolored pellets

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 234  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2023 P1 Q112

Q101. A child develops ‘stranger anxiety’ at

1. 2–3 months
2. 4–5 months
3. 6–7 months
4. 8–9 months

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 237  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2023 P1 Q113

Q102. Consider the following statements with respect to developmental milestones at 9 months of age: At this age, the child develops an immature pincer grasp. At this age, the child can say bisyllables (mama, dada, etc.). At this age, the child can wave bye-bye. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 237  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2022 P1 Q106

Q103. Which of the following are age-appropriate language milestones in a normally developing 2-year-old child? Vocabulary of 50-100 words Uses pronouns Occasional repeating of words Stating his name when asked Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 1, 2, and 4
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 168  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2021 P1 Q108

Q104. A child can ride a tricycle, hop on one foot but cannot skip. He uses alternate feet while going downstairs. Which one of the following motor skills should he be able to perform at this developmental level?

1. Copy a triangle
2. Copy a cross
3. Build a gate with blocks
4. Copy a rectangle

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 101  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2023 P1 Q114

Q105. What are the upper age limits by which a child should start walking alone and be able to speak single words?

1. 12 months, 15 months respectively
2. 15 months, 18 months respectively
3. 15 months, 15 months respectively
4. 18 months, 18 months respectively

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 238  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

Milestone · 2021 P1 Q105

Q106. An infant has just started to watch his mother intently when she talks to him. He has not yet started smiling back. What is the approximate age of the child?

1. 4 weeks
2. 6 weeks
3. 8 weeks
4. 12 weeks

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 100  ·  Rapid Revision — page 155

RED FLAG & Gdmo · 2023 P1 Q110

Q107. A child requires detailed developmental evaluation if the Developmental Quotient is below

1. 70%
2. 75%
3. 80%
4. 85%

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 237  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

RED FLAG & Gdmo · 2023 P1 Q118

Q108. Which one of the following can be used for developmental screening in the community to identify children (aged 0–6 years) with developmental delay? •

1. Revised Denver Development Screening Test (Denver II)
2. Ages and Stages Questionnaire (ASQ-3)
3. Phatak’s Baroda Development Screening Test
4. Trivandrum Development Screening Chart

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 239  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

RED FLAG & Gdmo · 2022 P1 Q107

Q109. Which of the following tools are used for developmental screening? Denver-II Ages and Stages Questionnaire Parents Evaluation of Developmental Status Bayley Scale for Infant and Toddler Development Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 1, 2, and 4
3. 1, 3, and 4
4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 169  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

RED FLAG & Gdmo · 2024 P1 Q118

Q110. A 6-year-old boy has recently started telling his full name, although he cannot recite a poem. His Developmental Quotient (DQ) in the language sphere is:

1. 33%
2. 50%
3. 66%
4. 83%

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 317  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

RED FLAG & Gdmo · 2023 P1 Q97

Q111. Which of the following are the five essential components of nurturing care? Health Nutrition Breastfeeding Responsive caregiving Early learning Immunization Safety and security Supplementation Select the correct answer using the code below.

1. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 7
2. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. 1, 4, 6, 7 and 8
4. 2, 3, 5, 6 and 8

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 233  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

ADHD vs ASD vs Cerebral palsy vs Social Communication Disorder · 2021 P1 Q113

Q112. A 3-year-old boy presents with parental concerns regarding delayed development, especially speech. On observation, the clinician notes decreased eye contact, inattentiveness, unresponsive to being called and toe walking. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
2. Autism Spectrum Disorder
3. Cerebral Palsy
4. Social Communication Disorder

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 102  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

ADHD vs ASD vs Cerebral palsy vs Social Communication Disorder · 2021 P1 Q114

Q113. Atomoxetine is prescribed to children with Autism Spectrum Disorder to control symptoms of:

1. Anxiety
2. Sleep disturbances
3. Hyperactivity
4. Repetitive behavior

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 102  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

ADHD vs ASD vs Cerebral palsy vs Social Communication Disorder · 2021 P1 Q117

Q114. A 10-year-old child presents with difficulty in word recognition, word decoding abilities, difficulty in spelling with normal listening comprehension. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. Dyslexia
2. Autism spectrum disorder
3. Rett syndrome
4. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 103  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

ADHD vs ASD vs Cerebral palsy vs Social Communication Disorder · 2022 P1 Q103

Q115. What is the diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder primarily based upon?

1. Clinical criteria only
2. Clinical criteria and genetic studies only
3. Clinical criteria and MRI brain only
4. Clinical criteria, genetic studies, and MRI brain

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 167  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

ADHD vs ASD vs Cerebral palsy vs Social Communication Disorder · 2022 P1 Q118

Q116. Autism Spectrum Disorder is characterized by which of the following? Onset before 3 years of age Impaired verbal and gestural communication Stereotypic and restrictive behavioral patterns Tangential speech Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 3
2. 1, 2, and 4
3. 1, 3, and 4
4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 173  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

ADHD vs ASD vs Cerebral palsy vs Social Communication Disorder · 2023 P1 Q105

Q117. Which of the following genetic causes are commonly associated with autism spectrum disorders? 1. Angelman syndrome 2. Fragile X syndrome 3. Tuberous sclerosis 4. Williams syndrome Select the correct code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 235  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

ADHD vs ASD vs Cerebral palsy vs Social Communication Disorder · 2025 P1 Q105

Q118. Upto 10% of cases of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) may be caused by genetic conditions. Which of the following are known to be associated with ASD ? I. Tuberous sclerosis II. Fragile X syndrome III. Prader-Willi syndrome IV. Patau syndrome Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. I and II
2. I and III
3. II and III
4. I and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 408  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

ADHD vs ASD vs Cerebral palsy vs Social Communication Disorder · 2025 P1 Q106

Q119. Which of the following are characteristic features of cerebral palsy ? I. Disorder of movement II. Permanent nature III. Progressive course IV. Disorder of posture Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. II, III and IV
4. I, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 409  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

ADHD vs ASD vs Cerebral palsy vs Social Communication Disorder · 2025 P1 Q107

Q120. Which of the following are the tools used for classification of spasticity in a child with cerebral palsy ? I. Gross Motor Function Classification System II. Medical Research Council System III. Modified Connors Scale (Connors-II) IV. Modified Ashworth Scale Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. III and IV
4. I and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 409  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

ADHD vs ASD vs Cerebral palsy vs Social Communication Disorder · 2025 P1 Q108

Q121. Which of the following medications may be used in a child diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder ? I. Carbamazepine II. Methylphenidate III. Atomoxetine IV. Clonazepam Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. I and III
2. II and III
3. II and IV
4. I and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 409  ·  Rapid Revision — page 158

NSI needle stick Injury · 2020 P1 Q70

Q122. A young medical student while working in HIV ward got pricked accidentally on the finger by a syringe needle which was used to draw blood from a patient. Patient’s infection status is not known. Which one of the following therapeutic interventions will be the best interest of this student?

1. To start with Dolutegravir immediately
2. To wash wound with soap and water and start Emtricitabine
3. To Give Dolutegravir + Tenofovir + Emtricitabine
4. To give Dolutegravir + Tenofovir + Emtricitabine + HBV Immunoglobulin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 25  ·  Rapid Revision — page 160

NSI needle stick Injury · 2020 P2 Q5

Q123. Consider the following statements regarding needle stick injuries: 1. Injured part should be washed under running water 2. Dominant index finger is the commonest site for needle stick injury 3. All needle stick injuries should be reported 4. Hepatitis/HIV testing should be done after needle stick injury Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 40  ·  Rapid Revision — page 160

NSI needle stick Injury · 2022 P1 Q88

Q124. Which one of the following has the highest risk of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission after single exposure to an HIV-infected source?

1. Vaginal delivery
2. Vaginal intercourse
3. Blood transfusion
4. Percutaneous needle stick injury

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 163  ·  Rapid Revision — page 160