Epidemiology · 2023 P2 Q115

Q1. Which one among the following is best defined as the interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximal infectivity of that host?

1. Generation time
2. Latent period
3. Incubation period
4. Serial interval

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 273  ·  Rapid Revision — page 74

Epidemiology · 2021 P2 Q89

Q2. Which one of the following best explains the relationship among Prevalence (P), Incidence (I) and Duration (D) of a disease given the assumption that the population is stable?

1. I = P × D
2. D = P × I
3. I = P + D
4. P = I × D

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 133  ·  Rapid Revision — page 74

Epidemiology · 2022 P2 Q94

Q3. Which of the following are correct in respect of incidence rate? 1. It is a sum total of new and old cases. 2. It refers to a specified period of time. 3. It refers to a defined population. 4. It must include the unit of time in final expression. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 2, 3 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 201  ·  Rapid Revision — page 74

Epidemiology · 2024 P2 Q87

Q4. Which of the following statements are correct for incidence rate? 1. It is useful for taking action to control a disease. 2. Rising incidence rates may indicate ineffectiveness of the current control programmes. 3. Fluctuation in incidence rate may indicate a change in aetiology of disease. Select the answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 352  ·  Rapid Revision — page 74

Epidemiology · 2024 P2 Q88

Q5. Consider the following definition: “A high level of infection beginning early in life and affecting most of the child population, leading to a state of equilibrium such that the adult population shows evidence of the disease much less commonly than the children.” Which one of the following terms best fits this definition?

1. Holoendemic
2. Hyperendemic
3. Hypoendemic
4. Pandemic

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 352  ·  Rapid Revision — page 74

Epidemiology · 2025 P2 Q82

Q6. Which one of the following terms is an “all-or-none phenomenon” and is best described as termination of all transmission of infection by extermination of the infectious agent?

1. Disease control
2. Disease elimination
3. Disease eradication
4. Disease surveillance

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 456  ·  Rapid Revision — page 74

Epidemiology · 2025 P2 Q86

Q7. John Snow’s discovery that cholera is a waterborne disease was the outcome of which type of study?

1. Uncontrolled trial
2. Natural experiment
3. Risk factor trial
4. Trial of aetiological agent

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 457  ·  Rapid Revision — page 74

Epidemiology · 2023 P2 Q115

Q8. Which one among the following is best defined as the interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximal infectivity of that host?

1. Generation time
2. Latent period
3. Incubation period
4. Serial interval

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 273  ·  Rapid Revision — page 74

Epidemiology · 2021 P2 Q87

Q9. In which one of the following study designs, the unit of study involves populations rather than individuals?

1. Ecological studies
2. Cross-sectional studies
3. Case-control studies
4. Cohort studies

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 132  ·  Rapid Revision — page 74

Epidemiology · 2022 P2 Q107

Q10. In a town, a study was carried out to determine the role of cigarette smoking in the causation of lung cancer. It was found that a total of 7000 people in the town were smokers. Of them, 70 developed lung cancer. In the same town, 3000 people were non-smokers. Of them, 3 developed lung cancer. Given these numbers, what would be the attributable risk to cigarette smoking for lung cancer?

1. 10%
2. 30%
3. 60%
4. 90%

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 204  ·  Rapid Revision — page 74

Epidemiology · 2021 P2 Q86

Q11. Under the International Health Regulations which of the following diseases are notifiable by the National Health Authority to the World Health Organization? 1. Cholera 2. Plague 3. Klebsiella pneumonia 4. Yellow fever Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 132  ·  Rapid Revision — page 74

Type of epidemic · 2020 P2 Q85

Q12. Poor hand hygiene of a mess worker in a university college mess led to Hepatitis A cases in the hostel inmates. What type of epidemic will this exposure present with? 1. Propagated 2. Common source-continuous exposure 3. Common source-point exposure Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 1 only
4. 2 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 60  ·  Rapid Revision — page 75

Type of epidemic · 2021 P2 Q117

Q13. After attending a birthday party in a hostel around 50 students reported having loose stools, fever and few reported vomiting. This outbreak can be identified as what type of outbreak?

1. Propagated only
2. Common point source only
3. Common source continuous
4. Both propagated and common point source

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 139  ·  Rapid Revision — page 75

Type of epidemic · 2025 P2 Q85

Q14. Many patients with unexplained rash and fever were reported from a village close to the Primary Health Centre (PHC). What is the first step in initiating the investigation of such an epidemic?

1. Rapid search for all cases
2. Verification of diagnosis
3. Confirm existence of epidemic
4. Defining the population at risk

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 456  ·  Rapid Revision — page 75

Fertility Rates · 2022 P2 Q120

Q15. The following table shows the ‘Total Fertility Rate (TFR)’ by the Wealth Index, as per the National Family Health Survey (NFHS–4) findings: | Wealth Index | TFR | | --- | --- | | Lowest | 3.17 | | Second | 2.45 | | Middle | 2.07 | | Fourth | 1.84 | | Highest | 1.54 | | Total | 2.18 | Which among the following is/are correct about the information? 1. The divisions of Wealth Index in the NFHS–4 can be called ‘quartiles’. 2. The information given in the table can be presented as a pie chart. 3. The Wealth Index was calculated in NFHS–4 by asking about the per capita income. 4. Each of the higher divisions of the Wealth Index had a lower TFR than the previous (or lower) division. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 4
3. 3
4. 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 207  ·  Rapid Revision — page 76

Fertility Rates · 2023 P2 Q81

Q16. Which one of the following is defined as 'the average number of children a woman would have if she were to pass through her reproductive years, bearing children at the same rates as the women now in each age group'? -

1. Age-Specific Fertility Rate (ASFR) -
2. General Fertility Rate (GFR) -
3. Net Reproduction Rate (NRR) -
4. Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 263  ·  Rapid Revision — page 76

Food poisoning · 2020 P1 Q80

Q17. Which of the following is NOT a clinical feature of Botulism?

1. Impaired alertness
2. Dysphagia
3. Diplopia
4. Ptosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 28  ·  Rapid Revision — page 76

Drugs used in Prophylaxis · 2020 P1 Q73

Q18. Which one of the following infections is NOT amenable to post-exposure prophylaxis with specific immunoglobulins?

1. Hepatitis B
2. HIV
3. Tetanus
4. Rabies

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 27  ·  Rapid Revision — page 77

Drugs used in Prophylaxis · 2020 P1 Q81

Q19. Post exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV should contain:

1. 2 antiretroviral drugs administered for 4 weeks
2. 2 antiretroviral drugs administered for 6 weeks
3. 3 antiretroviral drugs administered for 4 weeks
4. 3 antiretroviral drugs administered for 6 weeks

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 28  ·  Rapid Revision — page 77

Drugs used in Prophylaxis · 2021 P1 Q76

Q20. A 25-year-old traveller from United Kingdom desires anti-malaria prophylaxis before travelling to India. He has history of seizures and depression. Which of the following drugs can be used? 1. Doxycycline 2. Atovaquone + Proguanil 3. Chloroquine + Proguanil 4. Mefloquine Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 3 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 92  ·  Rapid Revision — page 77

Drugs used in Prophylaxis · 2021 P1 Q116

Q21. Protective efficacy of Varicella vaccine when used for post-exposure prophylaxis (given within 72 hours of contact) is approximately:

1. 60%
2. 70%
3. 80%
4. 90%

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 103  ·  Rapid Revision — page 77

Drugs used in Prophylaxis · 2022 P1 Q84

Q22. A patient undergoes splenectomy after an accident. He will require oral prophylaxis against which of the following organisms?

1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Escherichia coli
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. Pneumocystis carinii

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 163  ·  Rapid Revision — page 77

Drugs used in Prophylaxis · 2023 P1 Q60

Q23. Which of the following treatments for a pregnant lady who has been exposed to a patient of chicken pox are correct? Varicella-zoster immune globulin Varicella-zoster vaccine Acyclovir Prednisolone Select the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 222  ·  Rapid Revision — page 77

Clostridium · 2021 P1 Q71

Q24. Pseudomembranous colitis is associated with which one of the following microbes?

1. Entamoeba histolytica
2. Salmonella typhi
3. Escherichia coli
4. Clostridium difficile

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 91  ·  Rapid Revision — page 78

Clostridium · 2023 P2 Q2

Q25. Which one of the following statements regarding Gas Gangrene Infection is correct?

1. It is caused by C. perfringens, a gram negative aerobic non-spore-forming bacilli
2. It is caused by C. perfringens, a gram positive anaerobic spore-forming bacilli
3. It is caused by C. tetani, a gram positive anaerobic spore-forming bacilli
4. It is caused by C. tetani, a gram negative anaerobic non-spore-forming bacilli

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 241  ·  Rapid Revision — page 78

Clostridium · 2023 P2 Q37

Q26. Gas Gangrene resulting in crepitus in tissues and a sweet-smelling brown exudate is caused by:

1. Anaerobic Bacteroides spp
2. Clostridium perfringens
3. Gas-forming Klebsiella spp
4. Synergistic bacteria

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 251  ·  Rapid Revision — page 78

Food Adulteration Diseases · 2020 P2 Q115

Q27. Endemic ascites occurs due to:

1. Naturally occurring toxin
2. Bacterial toxin
3. Fungal toxin
4. Viral toxin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

Rapid Revision — page 79

Anemia mukht bharat under POSHAN · 2021 P2 Q49

Q28. During pregnancy iron supplementation is needed for:

1. all pregnant mothers from 16 weeks onwards
2. only those pregnant mothers who have Hb < 10 gm%
3. only those pregnant mothers who are not eating green vegetables
4. all pregnant mothers since 6 weeks of pregnancy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 122  ·  Rapid Revision — page 81

Anemia mukht bharat under POSHAN · 2024 P1 Q103

Q29. Which of the following are correct regarding activities under the Weekly Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation (WIFS) program? 1. Administration of supervised weekly iron-folic acid supplements of 100 mg elemental iron and 500 µg folic acid 2. Administration of supervised weekly iron-folic acid supplements of 60 mg elemental iron and 0.5 mg folic acid 3. Biannual de-worming with albendazole 4. Annual de-worming with albendazole Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 4
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 4
4. 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 311  ·  Rapid Revision — page 81

Anemia mukht bharat under POSHAN · 2025 P2 Q94

Q30. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has launched a programme to meet the challenge of high prevalence of anaemia amongst Adolescent Boys and Girls. Consider the following statements in relation to the key interventions being undertaken: I. It entails supervised weekly administration of 100 mg elemental iron and 500 µg folic acid. II. These weekly iron-folic acid supplements are administered by using a fixed day approach. III. It entails supervised administration of Albendazole 400 mg every three months for control of helminth infestation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. I and III
4. I and II

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 459  ·  Rapid Revision — page 81

Anemia mukht bharat under POSHAN · 2023 P1 Q106

Q31. To reduce the risk of neural tube defects in the baby, which of the following are recommended?

1. Folate supplements, from one month before conception to three months after
2. Folate supplements, from confirmation of pregnancy to the end of first trimester
3. Zinc supplements, from one month before conception to three months after
4. Zinc supplements, from confirmation of pregnancy to the end of first trimester

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 235  ·  Rapid Revision — page 81

BIO MEDICAL WASTE MANAGEMENT · 2022 P2 Q88

Q32. Consider the following: 1. Intravenous tubes 2. Catheters 3. Gloves 4. Blood bags Which of the above-mentioned biomedical wastes will be segregated in Red bag as per the Biomedical Waste Management Rules, 2016?

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 199  ·  Rapid Revision — page 82

BIO MEDICAL WASTE MANAGEMENT · 2025 P2 Q110

Q33. Under the Biomedical Waste Management Rules 2016, human anatomical waste is to be carried in which colour plastic bags?

1. Yellow
2. Red
3. Blue
4. Black

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 465  ·  Rapid Revision — page 82

Instruments / Water · 2022 P2 Q81

Q34. In swimming pools, the free residual chlorine required for providing adequate protection against bacterial and viral agents should be:

1. 0·5 mg/litre
2. 1·0 mg/litre
3. 1·5 mg/litre
4. 2·0 mg/litre

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 198

Instruments / Water · 2023 P2 Q86

Q35. The ‘Nalgonda Technique’ developed by the National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) was developed primarily for the removal of which one of the following from water?

1. Asbestos
2. Fluorine
3. Chlorine
4. Iron

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 265

Contraceptive Failure Rate · 2020 P2 Q45

Q36. The Pearl Index for contraceptive effectiveness is calculated in terms of which of the following? 1. Pregnancy rate 2. Abortion rate 3. Hundred woman years 4. Thousand woman years Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 49

Contraceptive Failure Rate · 2022 P2 Q46

Q37. Amongst the following, the Pearl Index is highest with:

1. combined oral contraceptives
2. intrauterine contraceptive devices
3. barrier contraceptives
4. calendar rhythm method

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 188

Iodine Deficiency Indicator · 2021 P2 Q103

Q38. The most sensitive indicator of environmental iodine deficiency is:

1. Prevalence of goiter
2. Prevalence of neonatal hypothyroidism
3. Prevalence of cretinism
4. Urinary iodine excretion

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 136

Protein Quality · 2025 P2 Q107

Q39. Egg proteins are considered to be the best among food proteins because: I. of their biological value II. of their digestibility III. they contain all the essential amino acids IV. their calorie content is higher than in proteins of vegetable sources Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I only
2. I, II and III
3. II, III and IV
4. I, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 464

Vitamin A Deficiency · 2025 P2 Q89

Q40. Of the following ocular manifestations of Vitamin A deficiency, the first sign that can be clinically seen is:

1. Bitot’s spots
2. Nyctalopia
3. Conjunctival Xerosis
4. Corneal Xerosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 458

Disease Control / Eradication · 2020 P1 Q119

Q41. Neonatal tetanus elimination in India is defined as less than one case per:

1. 100 live births per year
2. 1000 live births per year
3. 10000 live births per year
4. 100000 live births per year

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 37

Disease Control / Eradication · 2025 P2 Q82

Q42. Which one of the following terms is an “all-or-none phenomenon” and is best described as termination of all transmission of infection by extermination of the infectious agent?

1. Disease control
2. Disease elimination
3. Disease eradication
4. Disease surveillance

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 456

GOBI / Fixed-Day / Programmes · 2025 P2 Q103

Q43. Which of the following strategies were encouraged by the UNICEF under its ‘GOBI Campaign’? I. G for growth charts to better monitor child development II. O for oral rehydration to treat all mild and moderate dehydration III. B for better and continuous evaluation of children up to 5 years of age IV. I for immunization against measles, diphtheria, polio, pertussis, tetanus and tuberculosis Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 463

GOBI / Fixed-Day / Programmes · 2025 P2 Q96

Q44. Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, the beneficiaries are being provided with a minimum package of antenatal care including certain investigations and drugs on a fixed day of every month. Which day of the month is specified for this purpose?

1. 1st day of the month
2. 7th day of the month
3. 9th day of the month
4. 15th day of the month

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 460

Nutrition One-liners ( ) · 2025 P2 Q101

Q45. Which one of the following is the major contributor to the total energy intake, in terms of energy provided, in an average Indian diet?

1. Fats
2. Carbohydrates
3. Proteins
4. Vitamins

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 463

Nutrition One-liners ( ) · 2025 P2 Q104

Q46. What is the limit of daily exposure of noise that people can tolerate without substantial damage to their hearing?

1. 65 dB
2. 85 dB
3. 105 dB
4. 125 dB

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 463

Nutrition One-liners ( ) · 2025 P2 Q105

Q47. How much illumination is recommended by the Illuminating Engineering Society for the general office work?

1. 100 lux
2. 200 lux
3. 400 lux
4. 900 lux

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 464

Nutrition One-liners ( ) · 2025 P2 Q106

Q48. Dietary fibers have:

1. anabolic effect
2. catabolic effect
3. no metabolic effect
4. sometimes anabolic and sometimes catabolic effect, depending on the type

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 464

Nutrition One-liners ( ) · 2023 P2 Q91

Q49. Which food proteins among the following are considered to be the best and are used in nutritional studies as 'reference protein'?

1. Milk proteins
2. Egg proteins
3. Wheat proteins
4. Legume proteins

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 266

Nutrition One-liners ( ) · 2025 P2 Q107

Q50. Egg proteins are considered to be the best among food proteins because: I. of their biological value II. of their digestibility III. they contain all the essential amino acids IV. their calorie content is higher than in proteins of vegetable sources Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. I, II and III
3. II, III and IV
4. I, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 464

Vitamin Deficiency · 2021 P1 Q57

Q51. A 30-year-old female presents with malaise, breathlessness off and on and paraesthesias. She is vegetarian by diet. Her investigation revealed Hb = 6.2 gm/dL, MCV = 128 fL, platelet count = 1,20,000/cumm, with blood smear showing macrocytosis and neutrophil hyper segmentation. What is the likely diagnosis?

1. Iron deficiency anemia
2. Myelophthisic anemia
3. Megaloblastic anemia
4. Aplastic anemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 86

Vitamin Deficiency · 2022 P1 Q94

Q52. An elderly alcoholic man who mainly eats a diet of maize and maize products presents with complaints of chronic diarrhea, severe sunburn-like lesions, tension on exposed parts, and acute delirium. He is admitted. What is the likely diagnosis and its treatment?

1. Celiac disease, Gluten-free diet
2. Vitamin B12 deficiency, Parenteral B12 therapy
3. Pellagra, Niacin therapy
4. Whipple’s disease, Doxycycline + Trimethoprim

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 165

Vitamin Deficiency · 2025 P1 Q40

Q53. A 46 year old lady on vegan diet for a decade presents with chief complaints of tingling and numbness in lower limbs for two months and a history of swaying while walking through narrow corridors. Which one of the following blood tests is advisable for diagnosis in this patient?

1. Serum protein electrophoresis
2. Anti-gliadin antibodies
3. Vitamin 25(OH) D level
4. Vitamin B12 levels

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 384

Vitamin Deficiency · 2025 P1 Q54

Q54. A 36 year old man presents with decreased appetite, mouth soreness, diarrhoea and irritability. On examination he has a bright red tongue with a pigmented scaly rash around the neck. Which one of the following food items in his diet has a bearing on his disease?

1. Rice
2. Wheat
3. Corn
4. Fish

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 390

Vitamin Deficiency · 2025 P1 Q55

Q55. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder which affects the absorption of which one of the following micronutrients?

1. Iodine
2. Zinc
3. Iron
4. Selenium

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 390

PQLI, HDI MPI other parameters · 2020 P2 Q108

Q56. Which of the following statements regarding Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) are correct? 1. It consolidates infant mortality, life expectancy at age one, and literacy 2. It does not measure economic growth but measures the result of economic policies 3. For each component, the performance of individual countries is placed on a scale of 0-100 Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 65  ·  Rapid Revision — page 89

PQLI, HDI MPI other parameters · 2021 P2 Q81

Q57. The life expectancy at birth for a country A is 64 years. The minimum and maximum values of life expectancy are 20 years and 86 years respectively. As part of Human Development Index (HDI), what is the Life Expectancy Index for the country A?

1. 0·512
2. 0·667
3. 0·744
4. 0·970

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 131  ·  Rapid Revision — page 89

PQLI, HDI MPI other parameters · 2021 P2 Q82

Q58. Which of the following indicators stand consolidated in Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)? 1. Infant mortality 2. Life expectancy at age one 3. Per capita income 4. Literacy Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 131  ·  Rapid Revision — page 89

PQLI, HDI MPI other parameters · 2022 P2 Q89

Q59. Which of the following parameters are required for calculating the Human Development Index? 1. Life expectancy at birth 2. Infant mortality rate 3. Gross national income per capita 4. Mean years of schooling Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 200  ·  Rapid Revision — page 89

PQLI, HDI MPI other parameters · 2025 P2 Q81

Q60. Which of the following indicators are considered for computing “Physical Quality of Life Index” (PQLI)? I. Infant mortality II. Life expectancy at age one III. Literacy IV. Per capita income Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 455  ·  Rapid Revision — page 89

Vandemataram scheme: - & imp · 2021 P2 Q111

Q61. The voluntary scheme under which any obstetrics and gynaecology specialist, lady doctor/MBBS doctor can volunteer themselves for providing safe motherhood service is called

1. Ayushman Bharat Scheme
2. Mamta Scheme
3. Janani Suraksha Scheme
4. Vande Mataram Scheme

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 137  ·  Rapid Revision — page 91

Vandemataram scheme: - & imp · 2022 P2 Q111

Q62. Regarding the Vandemataram Scheme, consider the following statements: 1. It is a voluntary scheme wherein any obstetrician, maternity home, nursing home, or MBBS doctor can provide safe motherhood services. 2. The enrolled doctors must provide iron and folic acid tablets out of their pocket free to the beneficiaries. 3. The TT injections are provided by the District Medical Officers to the enrolled doctors for free administration to the beneficiaries. 4. To join the Vandemataram Scheme, the facility must have resources for caesarean section. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 204  ·  Rapid Revision — page 91

Duration of isolation · 2021 P2 Q97

Q63. Which of the following are correct in respect of Diphtheria? 1. The incubation period is 14 to 28 days 2. Diphtheria antitoxin is used in treatment of cases 3. It is one of the diseases protected from, by the Pentavalent vaccine given in National Program Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 134  ·  Rapid Revision — page 92

Bio stat · 2024 P2 Q91

Q64. A researcher has obtained the country-level data on the average Body Mass Index (BMI) and the average sugar intake for 100 countries. Which among the following will be best suited to present the relationship between BMI and sugar intake in the 100 countries?

1. Bar chart
2. Pie diagram
3. Frequency polygon
4. Scatter diagram

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 353  ·  Rapid Revision — page 92

Bio stat · 2021 P2 Q91

Q65. The blood glucose level of 5 individuals was 110, 94, 102, 98, 96: Consider the following statements: 1. The range is 16 2. The median is 98 3. The standard deviation is √10 Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 133  ·  Rapid Revision — page 92

Bio stat · 2022 P2 Q95

Q66. Forty patients with Diarrheal diseases were studied. Their age distribution is given in the table below: | Age (in years): | 0–4 | 5–9 | 10–14 | | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Number of patients | 22 | 12 | 6 | What is the mean age of the patients in this study?

1. 2 years
2. 4 years
3. 5 years
4. 6 years

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 201  ·  Rapid Revision — page 92

Sensitivity / Specificity / Predictive Value · 2020 P2 Q86

Q67. What is the specificity of sputum microscopy in detection of Pulmonary Tuberculosis (PTB) as per the information given below? | Sputum microscopy | PTB Present | PTB Absent | Total | | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Positive | 270 | 20 | 290 | | Negative | 30 | 180 | 210 | | Total | 300 | 200 | 500 |

1. 10 %
2. 36 %
3. 90 %
4. 94 %

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 60

Sensitivity / Specificity / Predictive Value · 2020 P2 Q97

Q68. Predictive accuracy of a screening test depends on the following EXCEPT:

1. Disease prevalence
2. Disease incidence
3. Sensitivity of screening test
4. Specificity of screening test

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 62

Sensitivity / Specificity / Predictive Value · 2024 P2 Q120

Q69. The table below shows the results of ELISA test for HIV infection: | ELISA result | Infected | Noninfected | | --- | --- | --- | | Positive | 4900 | 950 | | Negative | 100 | 94050 | | Total | 5000 | 95000 | Consider the following statements: 1. The sensitivity is 98%. 2. The specificity is 99%. Which of the statements given is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 364

Sensitivity / Specificity / Predictive Value · 2025 P2 Q87

Q70. Given below is a table showing diagnosis of Myocardial infarction by ECG: | ECG result | MI Present | MI Absent | Total | | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Positive | 45 (TP) | 8,000 (FP) | 8,045 | | Negative | 5 (FN) | 32,000 (TN) | 32,005 | | Total | 50 | 40,000 | 40,050 | Consider the following statements: I. Sensitivity is 90%. II. Specificity is 80%. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 457

Measures of Disease Frequency · 2020 P2 Q87

Q71. In a cohort of 500 women attending antenatal clinic, 70 % had ultrasonography (USG). This cohort was followed up at delivery. Of the women who had USG, 70 delivered low birth weight (LBW) babies, whereas of the women who did not undergo USG, 50 delivered LBW babies. The incidence of LBW babies among women who had USG is:

1. 10 %
2. 15 %
3. 20 %
4. 25 %

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 60

Measures of Disease Frequency · 2021 P2 Q89

Q72. Which one of the following best explains the relationship among Prevalence (P), Incidence (I) and Duration (D) of a disease given the assumption that the population is stable?

1. I = P × D
2. D = P × I
3. I = P + D
4. P = I × D

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 133

Study Designs · 2021 P2 Q87

Q73. In which one of the following study designs, the unit of study involves populations rather than individuals?

1. Ecological studies
2. Cross-sectional studies
3. Case-control studies
4. Cohort studies

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 132

Mortality & Descriptive Statistics · 2021 P2 Q88

Q74. The following table shows the mortality figures among hazardous industry workers: | Age group | National death rate (per 1000) | Worker population | Observed deaths | | --- | --- | --- | --- | | 25-34 | 2.0 | 3000 | 8 | | 35-44 | 3.5 | 2000 | 9 | | 45-54 | 6.0 | 2000 | 13 | What is the Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR) for the hazardous industry workers (as compared to national population)?

1. 100
2. 110
3. 120
4. 130

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 132

Mortality & Descriptive Statistics · 2021 P2 Q90

Q75. A diagnostic test was applied to a group of patients. As per the information provided, the test detected 60 true positives and missed 100 cases (false negatives). What is the sensitivity of the test?

1. 20.5%
2. 37.5%
3. 60%
4. 97%

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 133

Mortality & Descriptive Statistics · 2021 P2 Q91

Q76. For a given data set, consider the following statements: 1. The range is 16 2. The median is 98 3. The standard deviation is √10 Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 133

Integrated Child Development Services Scheme (ICDS) · 2022 P2 Q104

Q77. Which of the following services are provided to pregnant women under the Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS)? 1. Health check-up 2. Immunization against tetanus 3. Supplementary nutrition 4. Nutrition and health education Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 203  ·  Rapid Revision — page 98

Integrated Child Development Services Scheme (ICDS) · 2023 P2 Q97

Q78. Which of the following are beneficiaries of services provided under the Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS)? Adolescent boys Adolescent girls Pregnant women Children less than 6 years of age Options:

1. 1, 2, and 3 only
2. 2, 3, and 4 only
3. 1, 3, and 4 only
4. 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 268  ·  Rapid Revision — page 98

Other Biostat · 2020 P2 Q96

Q79. Visual inspection based screening test with 5 % acetic acid is used for the screening of which one of the following cancers?

1. Lung cancer
2. Cervix cancer
3. Oral cancer
4. Breast cancer

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 62

Other Biostat · 2020 P2 Q97

Q80. Predictive accuracy of a screening test depends on the following EXCEPT:

1. Disease prevalence
2. Disease incidence
3. Sensitivity of screening test
4. Specificity of screening test

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 62

Other Biostat · 2025 P2 Q2

Q81. Which of the following are criteria for cancer screening? I. Screening test should be sensitive and specific II. Screening test should be acceptable to the screened population III. The disease should be an uncommon one for screening to be effective IV. Disease should be recognisable at an early stage Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 417

Other Biostat · 2022 P2 Q82

Q82. Which of the following will be target population for screening of diabetes? 1. Women who have had a baby weighing more than 4·5 kg 2. People over 40 years of age 3. People with family history of diabetes Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 198

Other Biostat · 2022 P2 Q86

Q83. Which of the following criteria must be met by a disease before it is to be considered suitable for a screening Programme? 1. The natural history of the disease should be adequately understood. 2. No effective treatment should exist for the disease. 3. The disease should not have a recognizable latent or asymptomatic stage. 4. There should be a test that can detect the disease prior to onset of signs and symptoms. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 4
3. 3 and 4
4. 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 199

Dependency Ratio · 2024 P2 Q119

Q84. Consider the following data for a country: Population in 0-14 years of age – 391,558,367; Population between 15–64 years of age – 856,076,200; Population above 65 years of age – 71,943,390. What shall be the dependency ratio of this country?

1. 42.4 %
2. 54.1 %
3. 66.2 %
4. 78.6 %

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 364

Infant Mortality Rate · 2021 P2 Q110

Q85. In a town with one lakh population (1,00,000) there are a total of 2500 live births in a year. There were 75 total deaths of children before the age of one month, total 200 deaths before the age of one year, and a total 300 deaths before the age of three years. Which of the following statements regarding Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) of the town for the given year are correct? 1. The denominator is 1,00,000 2. The IMR of the town is higher than the current national average of IMR for India 3. The numerator is the number of children dying before the age of one month 4. The IMR of the town is 80 per 1000 live births Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 2 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 137

Obesity Indicators · 2020 P1 Q68

Q86. Key anthropometric measurements important for evaluating the degree of obesity are:

1. Weight, height and waist circumference
2. Weight, height and hip circumference
3. Weight, height and mid-thigh circumference
4. Weight, height and chest circumference

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 25

Obesity Indicators · 2020 P1 Q69

Q87. What is the minimum BMI (Body Mass Index) recommended for considering adjuvant pharmacologic treatment in obesity with comorbidity?

1. 23 kg/m²
2. 25 kg/m²
3. 27 kg/m²
4. 30 kg/m²

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 25

Obesity Indicators · 2023 P1 Q51

Q88. Which of the following statements is/are correct for obesity? 1. Adiponectin levels are reduced in obesity. 2. Orlistat is a reversible inhibitor of lipase used for the treatment of obesity. 3. Liraglutide used for T2DM management can cause weight gain and is not recommended in obese patients with T2DM. 4. Bariatric surgery is recommended in obese patients with BMI > 30 kg/m² for long-term benefits. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 219

Obesity Indicators · 2024 P2 Q105

Q89. Statement I — Waist circumference and waist to hip ratio are more powerful predictors of subsequent risk of type 2 diabetes than Body Mass Index (BMI). Statement II — Central obesity is an important determinant of insulin resistance, the underlying abnormality in most cases of type 2 diabetes. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 358

Obesity Indicators · 2025 P1 Q44

Q90. Which of the following drugs can cause secondary weight gain? I. Insulin II. Propranolol III. Orlistat IV. Thyroxine Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and IV
2. I and III
3. II, III and IV
4. I and II only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 385

Definition: MMR · 2024 P2 Q115

Q91. The most common cause of maternal mortality in India is

1. obstetric haemorrhage
2. obstructed labour
3. unsafe abortion
4. toxaemia of pregnancy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 363  ·  Rapid Revision — page 101

Definition: MMR · 2022 P2 Q117

Q92. As per the definition of the World Health Organization, ‘late maternal death’ is defined as the death of a woman from direct or indirect obstetric causes, after more than X days but less than one year after termination of pregnancy. Which one among the following is the correct value of X?

1. 7
2. 21
3. 42
4. 84

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 206  ·  Rapid Revision — page 101

Mosquito Identification / Vectors · 2023 P2 Q107

Q93. A water body was inspected to look for the presence of mosquito eggs. It was observed that there were boat-shaped eggs, laid singly, not in clusters. The eggs also had lateral floats. Which one of the following diseases is most likely to be spread by the mosquito whose eggs were found?

1. Chikungunya fever
2. Dengue fever
3. Japanese encephalitis
4. Malaria

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 271

Mosquito Identification / Vectors · 2023 P2 Q114

Q94. Which of the following mosquito-borne diseases are transmitted chiefly by Aedes mosquito? 1. Dengue 2. West Nile fever 3. Yellow fever 4. Zika fever Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 2 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 272

Mosquito Identification / Vectors · 2021 P1 Q80

Q95. Which of the following infections are caused by mosquito bite? 1. Malaria 2. Typhus 3. Filariasis 4. Dengue fever Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 93

Dengue / Chikungunya · 2023 P2 Q112

Q96. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Chikungunya fever? 1. It is usually transmitted by Culex mosquito. 2. A safe and effective vaccine is available for commercial use. 3. Incubation period is 4–7 days. 4. One of the prominent symptoms is arthropathy. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 272

Dengue / Chikungunya · 2024 P2 Q89

Q97. Consider the following statements regarding dengue virus: 1. It has four distinct serotypes. 2. Infection with any one serotype confers lifelong immunity for that virus serotype. 3. Secondary infection with dengue serotype 2 leads to severe form of dengue. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 352

Dengue / Chikungunya · 2024 P2 Q90

Q98. Consider the following statements regarding dengue: 1. The mosquito becomes infective after an extrinsic incubation period of 8–10 days. 2. Once it becomes infective, the mosquito remains infective for life. 3. The genital tract of the mosquito does not get infected. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 352

Rickettsial / Bartonella · 2021 P1 Q74

Q99. The causative organism and the vector for scrub typhus are:

1. Orientia tsutsugamushi and Louse
2. Rickettsia rickettsii and Trombiculid mite
3. Orientia tsutsugamushi and Trombiculid mite
4. Rickettsia prowazekii and Ixodes tick

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 92

Rickettsial / Bartonella · 2021 P1 Q73

Q100. Bartonella infection is an important cause of blood culture negative endocarditis. Clinical diseases caused by Bartonella species in humans include which of the following? 1. Cat scratch disease 2. Trench fever 3. Carrion’s disease 4. Anisakiasis Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 91

Kyasanur Forest Disease · 2021 P1 Q95

Q101. Kyasanur Forest Disease is endemic to:

1. West Africa
2. South America
3. South-West India
4. Balkans

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 97

Kyasanur Forest Disease · 2024 P2 Q95

Q102. Consider the following statements about Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD): 1. It is transmitted by ticks. 2. It was originally called ‘pig disease’ because of the association with dead pigs. 3. It was first recognized in Karnataka State. How many of the statements given are correct?

1. None of the statements
2. Only one of the statements
3. Only two of the statements
4. All the three statements

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 354

Transmission Chain / Type · 2023 P2 Q113

Q103. In which one of the following vector-borne diseases, the transmission chain is ‘Man-Snail-Man’?

1. Fish tapeworm
2. Malaria
3. Onchocerciasis
4. Schistosomiasis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 272

Transmission Chain / Type · 2025 P2 Q116

Q104. A housefly transmits any infectious agent by which of the following methods, most commonly?

1. Propagative transmission
2. Mechanical transmission
3. Cyclo-propagative transmission
4. Cyclo-developmental transmission

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 468

Vaccine Related · 2020 P1 Q114

Q105. Which one of the following is the correct dose and route of administration of hepatitis B vaccine in children?

1. 0.5 mL dose with 10 ug of antigen subcutaneous
2. 0.5 mL dose with 10ug of antigen intramuscularly
3. 1 mL dose with 5 ug of antigen subcutaneously
4. 1 mL dose with 5 ug of antigen intramuscularly

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 35  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2020 P1 Q115

Q106. Which one of the following statements is correct for approved acellular pertussis vaccine?

1. It contains at least 3 IU of inactivated pertussis toxin
2. It contains at least 3 pathogenic pertussis antigens
3. Its efficacy is superior to the whole cell pertussis vaccine
4. Presence of nonfimbrial protein is a mandatory component

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 36  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2020 P2 Q92

Q107. Pentavalent vaccine provides protection against which of the following diseases?

1. Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tuberculosis, Measles and Hepatitis B
2. Diphtheria, Pertussis, Measles, Hepatitis B and Hib
3. Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B and Rubella
4. Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B and Hib

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 61  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2020 P2 Q99

Q108. Which one of the following statements regarding sequential administration of Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) and Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) is NOT correct?

1. It will be cost-effective in developing countries for Polio prevention
2. The combined schedules of IPV and OPV appear to reduce or prevent Vaccine Associated Paralytic Polio (VAPP)
3. Intestinal mucosal immunity is lost due to IPV administration
4. IPV and OPV together may optimize both the humoral and mucosal immunogenicity of Polio vaccine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 63  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2021 P1 Q25

Q109. Which one of the following is the serological marker of immunization with Hepatitis B vaccine?

1. HBsAg
2. Anti-HBs
3. HBcAg
4. Anti-HBc

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 77  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2021 P1 Q115

Q110. Fractional inactivated intradermal poliovirus vaccine is given at which ages in the National Immunization Schedule?

1. 6 weeks and 10 weeks
2. 6 weeks and 14 weeks
3. 10 weeks and 14 weeks
4. 6 weeks, 10 weeks and 14 weeks

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 103  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2021 P2 Q95

Q111. Hepatitis B vaccine administered at birth is

1. A pentavalent vaccine
2. A combined vaccine of inactivated Polio and Hepatitis B
3. A monovalent vaccine of Hepatitis B
4. A fixed combination vaccine of Hib, Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 134  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2021 P2 Q118

Q112. Which of the following vaccines are given through the intramuscular route? 1. BCG vaccine 2. Hepatitis B vaccine 3. Pentavalent vaccine 4. Inactivated Polio vaccine Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 2, 3 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 139  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2021 P2 Q119

Q113. Covaxin is a/an

1. Live attenuated vaccine
2. Inactivated whole virus vaccine
3. Protein subunit vaccine
4. Nucleic acid vaccine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 139  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2022 P1 Q22

Q114. Vertical transmission of hepatitis B can be prevented by which of the following interventions? 1.Passive immunization of infant at birth 2.Active immunization of infant at birth 3.Antiviral therapy in the third trimester for mother with HBV-DNA level of > 200,000 IU/mL Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 146  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2022 P1 Q109

Q115. Which one of the following statements is correct about intra-dermal fractional Inactivated Polio Vaccine (fIPV) with respect to intramuscular (I/M) IPV?

1. fIPV is one-tenth of the I/M dose of IPV
2. fIPV is one-fifth of the I/M dose of IPV
3. fIPV is half of the I/M dose of IPV
4. fIPV is three-fourth of the I/M dose of IPV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 169  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2022 P2 Q93

Q116. What is the shelf life of Dukoral (wc-rBS) oral vaccine used for cholera prevention, when stored at a temperature of 2°C to 8°C?

1. 5 years
2. 3 years
3. 1 year
4. 6 months

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 201  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2022 P2 Q109

Q117. Which of the following ‘rare vaccine reactions’ are known to occur with the BCG vaccine? 1. Suppurative lymphadenitis 2. Guillain-Barre syndrome 3. Osteitis 4. Disseminated infection Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 204  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2023 P1 Q107

Q118. Vaccine-associated poliomyelitis is chiefly seen with which of the following strains of oral poliovirus?

1. OPV 1 only
2. OPV 2
3. OPV 3 only
4. Both OPV 1 and OPV 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 236  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2023 P1 Q116

Q119. The event related to vaccination which can be a contraindication for the next vaccination of a similar/identical type is •

1. syncope following MMR vaccine
2. encephalopathy following DPT vaccine
3. abscess at injection site after DPT vaccine
4. gastroenteritis following MMR vaccine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 238  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2023 P1 Q117

Q120. Which of the following events could be caused or precipitated by an active component of a vaccine? Anaphylaxis after measles vaccine Encephalopathy after DPT vaccine Adenitis following BCG vaccine Gastroenteritis following MMR vaccine Select the correct answer using the code below.

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 238  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2023 P2 Q45

Q121. Which of the following vaccines can be given to a pregnant woman? (1) COVID vaccine (2) Measles, Mumps, Rubella vaccine (3) Hepatitis B vaccine (4) Rabies vaccine Options:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 3 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 253  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2023 P2 Q83

Q122. Regarding active immunization against typhoid fever, consider the following statements:

1. The typhoid polysaccharide vaccine is injectable and can be given subcutaneously or intramuscularly
2. The typhoid polysaccharide vaccine is required to be given in two doses and administered on 0 and 7th day
3. The typhoid oral Ty21a vaccine requires to be given in three doses on 0, 3rd and 7th days
4. Protective immunity with typhoid vaccines is achieved immediately after the vaccine is received. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 264  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2023 P2 Q84

Q123. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Mantoux test for tuberculosis?

1. It entails injecting 1 TU (Tuberculin Unit) of PPD (Purified Protein Derivative) in 0.1 mL intradermally
2. The injection should be given with the needle bevel facing downward
3. When placed correctly, the injection should produce a pale wheal of the skin, 1 – 2 mm in diameter
4. The injection should be given with a tuberculin syringe. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 264  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2023 P2 Q116

Q124. Consider the following vaccines: 1. BCG Vaccine 2. Hepatitis B Vaccine 3. Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) 4. Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) Which of the following is the correct order as per their sensitivity to heat (most sensitive to least sensitive) given in NIS?

1. 4-3-2-1
2. 2-1-3-4
3. 2-1-4-3
4. 4-3-1-2

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 273  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2023 P2 Q119

Q125. Which among the following vaccines best represent interventions that focus on cancer prevention too? Hepatitis A vaccine Hepatitis B vaccine Hemophilus influenzae B vaccine Human papilloma virus vaccine Choose the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 274  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2024 P1 Q68

Q126. Which of the following are correct with regard to BCG vaccination? 1. It is a live-attenuated vaccine. 2. It is administered by intramuscular injection. 3. It is derived from Mycobacterium bovis. 4. It is highly immunogenic. Select the answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 299  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2024 P1 Q69

Q127. Which of the following immunizations are recommended for persons infected with HIV? 1. Hepatitis B vaccine 2. Influenza virus vaccine 3. Pneumococcal vaccine Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 300  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2024 P1 Q119

Q128. Consider the following statements: 1. Hepatitis B vaccine has reduced efficacy, if administered intramuscularly. 2. The maximum time allowed between reconstitution of MMR vaccine and use is 30 minutes. 3. Maternal antibodies do not interfere with cellular immune response to BCG vaccine. 4. DTwP is preferred to DTaP for primary immunization in most children. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 4
4. 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 317  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2024 P1 Q120

Q129. Rotavirus vaccination is avoided during an episode of diarrhoea because:

1. It might compromise uptake of vaccine
2. It could trigger an episode of intussusception
3. Rotavirus vaccine is a live vaccine and hence may cause rotavirus diarrhoea and worsen the diarrheal episode
4. Vomiting is a significant adverse effect of Rotavirus vaccine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 318  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2024 P2 Q96

Q130. In countries with low levels of measles transmission, what should be the appropriate age for starting immunization with measles-containing vaccine (MCV)?

1. 6 months
2. 9 months
3. 12 months
4. 15–18 months

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 355  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2025 P1 Q98

Q131. Which of the following statements are correct regarding vaccination routes for children ? I. Hepatitis B vaccine given in deltoid region has reduced efficacy II. Two vaccines may be given in the same thigh, but separated by 1 inch III. Separate sites are used when administering a vaccine and an immunoglobulin IV. Two intramuscular vaccines may be given on the same day but in separate limbs Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. III only
2. I and III
3. II and III
4. I and IV Final

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 406  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2025 P1 Q111

Q132. Which of the following statements are correct about oral rotavirus vaccines ? I. The storage should be at 2–8°C II. The vaccine should be used within 2 hours of reconstitution or opening III. Past history of intussusception is a contraindication IV. The vaccine can be given if the baby has ongoing diarrhoea Select the answer using the code given below :

1. I and II
2. III and IV
3. I and III
4. II and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 410  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2021 P2 Q113

Q133. Consider the following statements: Statement-1: In the National Immunization Program, BCG vaccine is given only on the left upper arm Statement-2: This is done to maintain uniformity and for helping surveyors in verifying receipt of the vaccine Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements?

1. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and Statement-2 is the correct
2. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct and Statement-2 is not the correct
3. Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false
4. Statement-1 is false but Statement-2 is true

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 138  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Vaccine Related · 2022 P2 Q87

Q134. As a part of the Universal Immunization Programme in India, the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) given as fractional IPV by intradermal route is administered at what age/ages? 1. Birth 2. 6 weeks 3. 14 weeks 4. 9 months Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 199  ·  Rapid Revision — page 105

Ilr (Ice Lined Refrigerator) · 2020 P2 Q107

Q135. Hold over time of cold chain equipment depends on all of the following factors EXCEPT:

1. Ambient temperature
2. Quantity of vaccines kept
3. Types of vaccines kept
4. Condition of icepack lining

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 64  ·  Rapid Revision — page 109

Ilr (Ice Lined Refrigerator) · 2022 P1 Q119

Q136. Which vaccines are stored in the top rack of the main refrigerator compartment at a temperature of 4–10°C?

1. DPT, Hepatitis B, Measles, MMR vaccines
2. DPT, TT, Hepatitis A vaccine
3. BCG, DPT and Typhoid
4. BCG, Measles and MMR vaccines

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 173  ·  Rapid Revision — page 109

Ilr (Ice Lined Refrigerator) · 2022 P2 Q90

Q137. Which of the following statements regarding the Open Vial Policy, 2015 are correct? 1. It applies only for DPT, TT, Hepatitis B, OPV and Liquid Pentavalent vaccine. 2. Vaccine vials opened in session-site can be used again provided a vaccine vial monitor has not reached the discard point. 3. Open vial should never be submerged in water. 4. Open vials of BCG, Measles and JE should be preserved till the next immunization session. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 3 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 200  ·  Rapid Revision — page 109

Ilr (Ice Lined Refrigerator) · 2024 P2 Q81

Q138. As per the Open Vial Policy, partially used multidose vials of which of the following vaccines can be used over more than one immunization session? 1. BCG vaccine 2. DPT vaccine 3. Hepatitis B vaccine 4. Measles vaccine Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 349  ·  Rapid Revision — page 109

Ilr (Ice Lined Refrigerator) · 2025 P2 Q100

Q139. Consider the following statements with regard to Ice-Lined Refrigerator (ILR) employed for storing vaccines at the sub-district level: I. These types of refrigerators are top opening. II. Based on the temperature zone, the inside of ILRs can be divided into 3 parts. III. The upper part of ILR is cooler compared to the lower part. IV. Vaccines should never be kept directly on the floor of the ILR as they can get damaged. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and II
2. II and III
3. III and IV
4. I and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 461  ·  Rapid Revision — page 109

Catch-up Immunization: Maximum Age Limits (UIP India) · 2021 P2 Q112

Q140. A 2-year-old child has presented for vaccination, who has never been vaccinated earlier. As per the Universal Immunization Program, which among the following vaccines will be administered to the child on the first visit? 1. BCG vaccine 2. DPT-1 vaccine 3. Hepatitis B vaccine 4. Measles vaccine Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 2 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 138  ·  Rapid Revision — page 112

Catch-up Immunization: Maximum Age Limits (UIP India) · 2023 P1 Q120

Q141. An eleven-month-old unimmunized child comes for immunization. Which vaccines should be given in this visit?

1. BCG, OPV, DPT and Hepatitis B vaccines
2. OPV, DPT and MR vaccines only
3. BCG, DPT and MR vaccines
4. OPV, DPT, MR and Hepatitis B vaccines

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 239  ·  Rapid Revision — page 112

Catch-up Immunization: Maximum Age Limits (UIP India) · 2025 P2 Q112

Q142. In a child who has not received any dose of DPT and OPV immunization, up to what age can these vaccines be given under the Universal Immunization Programme?

1. DPT up to 7 years of age and OPV up to 5 years of age
2. DPT up to 8 years of age and OPV up to 6 years of age
3. DPT up to 10 years of age and OPV up to 7 years of age
4. DPT up to 12 years of age and OPV up to 10 years of age

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 466  ·  Rapid Revision — page 112

Catch-up Immunization: Maximum Age Limits (UIP India) · 2023 P2 Q99

Q143. What is the correct increasing order of minimum age at which the following vaccines are administered to a child, as part of the National Immunization Schedule (NIS) after birth? BCG vaccine Japanese Encephalitis (JE) vaccine Rotavirus vaccine Tetanus and adult diphtheria (Td) vaccine Options:

1. 1, 3, 2, 4
2. 1, 2, 3, 4
3. 3, 1, 4, 2
4. 1, 4, 2, 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 269  ·  Rapid Revision — page 112

Tetanus · 2020 P1 Q119

Q144. Neonatal tetanus elimination in India is defined as less than one case per:

1. 100 live births per year
2. 1000 live births per year
3. 10000 live births per year
4. 100000 live births per year

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 37  ·  Rapid Revision — page 113

Tetanus · 2021 P1 Q75

Q145. Which of the following are correct regarding tetanus? 1. Risus sardonicus may be seen. 2. Endotoxin produced has affinity for sensory nerve endings. 3. Lockjaw is painless. 4. Hysteria can mimic tetanus. Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 92  ·  Rapid Revision — page 113

Tetanus · 2022 P2 Q92

Q146. To prevent neonatal tetanus in an infant born to a woman who has not been given Tetanus Toxoid (TT) appropriately during pregnancy, what should ideally be done?

1. Give one dose of TT immediately
2. Injection Antitoxin Serum (ATS) has to be administered within 6 hours of birth
3. Give one dose of TT and one dose of ATS within 6 hours of birth
4. Give one dose of TT and one dose of ATS after 72 hours of birth

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 200  ·  Rapid Revision — page 113

Tetanus · 2023 P2 Q111

Q147. In which one of the following diseases are the source of infection and reservoir of infection the same?

1. Hookworm infection
2. Cholera
3. Tetanus
4. Typhoid

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 272  ·  Rapid Revision — page 113

Rabies / Animal Bite / Monkey Bite / Cat Bite · 2020 P1 Q82

Q148. Paralytic rabies is characterized by:

1. Maculopapular rash
2. Flaccid muscle weakness
3. Spastic muscle weakness
4. Hyperexcitability and facial weakness

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 28  ·  Rapid Revision — page 113

Rabies / Animal Bite / Monkey Bite / Cat Bite · 2020 P2 Q94

Q149. Which one of the following statements regarding Rabies Immunoglobulin is NOT true?

1. It should be administered only once as soon as possible after the initiation of post-exposure prophylaxis
2. It should be administered all into or around the wound sites
3. There is no scientific ground for performing a skin test prior to administering equine immunoglobulin
4. It can be administered till 15 days after the first dose of anti-rabies vaccine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 62  ·  Rapid Revision — page 113

Rabies / Animal Bite / Monkey Bite / Cat Bite · 2020 P2 Q101

Q150. Which is the most specific causative agent of Rabies?

1. Lyssavirus serotype 1
2. Lyssavirus serotype 2
3. Lyssavirus serotype 3
4. Lyssavirus serotype 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 63  ·  Rapid Revision — page 113

Rabies / Animal Bite / Monkey Bite / Cat Bite · 2021 P2 Q98

Q151. A person has presented with history of dog-bite on the uncovered surface of his right leg. There is a minor abrasion without bleeding. Consider the following statements about management: 1. The bite should be taken as a category I contact with suspect animal 2. The bite requires local treatment of the wound 3. The person requires immediate vaccination 4. The person requires immediate administration of rabies immunoglobulin Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 134  ·  Rapid Revision — page 113

Rabies / Animal Bite / Monkey Bite / Cat Bite · 2024 P2 Q98

Q152. Raju, a 6-year-old boy, was returning home from school. At the gate, he was scratched by a dog and there was some bleeding from the wound. Which option should be followed for the post-exposure prophylaxis?

1. Wash the wound and administer a shot of tetanus toxoid
2. Wash the wound and vaccinate with ARV only
3. Wash the wound, vaccinate with ARV and administer immunoglobulin
4. Wash and apply antiseptic to the wound

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 355  ·  Rapid Revision — page 113

Yellow Fever vaccine certificate · 2022 P2 Q110

Q153. Which one of the following vaccines is known to interfere with the Yellow Fever vaccine if administered within 3 weeks of each other?

1. Typhoid vaccine
2. Cholera vaccine
3. Tetanus toxoid
4. Measles vaccine

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 204  ·  Rapid Revision — page 115

Yellow Fever vaccine certificate · 2023 P2 Q82

Q154. Which among the following is correct about yellow fever vaccination requirement for international travelers?

1. Term of validity of the certificate is changed from 10 years to the duration of the life of the vaccinated person, some years ago
2. Lifetime validity of the certificate applies automatically to all existing and new certificates
3. Validity of the certificate begins 4 days after vaccination
4. In India, a booster dose of yellow fever vaccine is required for those whose certificate is prior to the year 2016. Choose correct option

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 264  ·  Rapid Revision — page 115

Yellow Fever vaccine certificate · 2025 P2 Q113

Q155. A traveller who has passed through a yellow fever endemic zone and does not possess a Certificate of Vaccination against yellow fever, enters a yellow fever ‘receptive’ area. For how long from the date of leaving the infected area must this traveller be placed on quarantine in a mosquito-proof ward?

1. 6 days
2. 7 days
3. 8 days
4. 10 days

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 467  ·  Rapid Revision — page 115