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Surgery — All UPSC CMS MCQs · 146 questions

Types Of Thyroid Carcinoma · 2021 P2 Q8

Q1. A 25-year-old female patient with a previous history of neck irradiation presents with thyroid swelling for the last 6 months. The patient is clinically euthyroid. On examination, the right lobe of thyroid gland is enlarged with presence of ipsilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. The most probable clinical diagnosis in this patient is

  1. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
  2. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
  3. Lymphoma
  4. Follicular carcinoma thyroid

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 109  ·  Rapid Revision — page 15

Types Of Thyroid Carcinoma · 2021 P2 Q10

Q2. Serum thyroglobulin level is an important tumor marker for

  1. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
  2. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
  3. Anaplastic carcinoma thyroid
  4. Thyroid lymphoma

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 109  ·  Rapid Revision — page 15

Types Of Thyroid Carcinoma · 2022 P2 Q8

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding papillary thyroid cancer are correct? 1. It is the most common malignant tumour of the thyroid gland. 2. It is more common in young females. 3. It has a propensity for hematogenous spread. 4. Distant metastases are uncommon. Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 175  ·  Rapid Revision — page 15

Types Of Thyroid Carcinoma · 2023 P1 Q47

Q4. A 27-year-old lady underwent thyroidectomy for thyroid carcinoma. Post-operatively, she started developing muscle cramps, perioral and peripheral paresthesia, and carpopedal spasm. Which one of the following interventions will be appropriate for this patient?

  1. Nerve conduction velocity in both upper and lower limbs and to administer methylcobalamin
  2. EMG of both lower limbs and to administer oral prednisolone
  3. Measure of serum ionized calcium and to administer IV calcium gluconate
  4. Measure of serum bicarbonate and to administer IV bicarbonate

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 218  ·  Rapid Revision — page 15

Mediastinal Masses · 2021 P2 Q9

Q5. An infant presented in the surgical OPD with complaints of a unilateral swelling in the neck. The swelling was soft, cystic, partially compressible and brilliantly transilluminant. The most probable diagnosis is:

  1. Branchial fistula
  2. Branchial cyst
  3. Cystic hygroma
  4. Thyroglossal cyst

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 109  ·  Rapid Revision — page 18

Mediastinal Masses · 2023 P2 Q10

Q6. Which of the following statements regarding the thyroglossal duct are correct? 1. It is situated in the midline of the neck. 2. It moves upwards on swallowing but not on tongue protrusion. 3. It is treated with the Sistrunk operation. 4. It may be the only functioning thyroid tissue in the body. Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 243  ·  Rapid Revision — page 18

Mediastinal Masses · 2023 P2 Q33

Q7. Masaoka staging is used for staging:

  1. Germ cell tumours
  2. Thymoma
  3. Lymphoma
  4. Neurogenic tumours

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 250  ·  Rapid Revision — page 18

Mediastinal Masses · 2024 P2 Q5

Q8. A midline neck swelling just below the hyoid bone, managed by Sistrunk's operation, leads to a postoperative need for thyroxine replacement. The most likely diagnosis is:

  1. Lateral aberrant thyroid
  2. Thyroglossal cyst
  3. Solitary thyroid nodule
  4. Thyroglossal cyst with only functioning thyroid tissue

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 321  ·  Rapid Revision — page 18

Adpkd & Arpkd · 2020 P1 Q33

Q9. All of the following statements about adult polycystic kidney disease are true, EXCEPT:

  1. It is inherited as autosomal dominant trait
  2. It is usually associated with marked proteinuria
  3. It is usually associated with systematic hypertension, from young age
  4. It is associated with Berry aneurysm

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 15  ·  Rapid Revision — page 19

Adpkd & Arpkd · 2024 P2 Q21

Q10. Which of the following are features of Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)? 1. Cyst may also occur in liver, pancreas and arachnoid membrane. 2. Most commonly manifests between 20–30 years of age. 3. Clinical manifestations are renal and extrarenal low. 4. Men tend to progress to renal failure more rapidly than women

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 326  ·  Rapid Revision — page 19

GIST (Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumours) · 2021 P2 Q16

Q11. A 50 year old male patient presents to the emergency with sudden onset of upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting and hematemesis. On examination, PR = 106/min, BP = 100/70 mm Hg and pallor is present. CECT abdomen reveals a large exophytic tumor of size 13 × 8 cm at the fundus of the stomach. On upper GI endoscopy, the mucosa overlying the tumor is intact. The staining for CD117 in the upper GI endoscopic biopsy is positive. The most probable clinical diagnosis in this patient is

  1. Gastric lymphoma
  2. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
  3. Carcinoid tumor
  4. Carcinoma stomach

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 111  ·  Rapid Revision — page 22

GIST (Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumours) · 2022 P2 Q26

Q12. Which one of the following is correct regarding Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumour (GIST)?

  1. It arises from epithelial layer
  2. The male to female ratio is 9:1
  3. 50% arise from stomach
  4. Lymphatic spread is seen commonly

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 181  ·  Rapid Revision — page 22

Score · 2020 P1 Q23

Q13. The recent classification system for listing a patient as a candidate for liver transplantation is:

  1. Child Pugh score
  2. APACHE score
  3. MELD score
  4. Metavir score

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 12  ·  Rapid Revision — page 23

Score · 2020 P1 Q95

Q14. Which one of the following is NOT an appropriate criterion for diagnosis of Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)?

  1. Respiratory rate > 20/min
  2. Heart rate > 90/min
  3. Total leucocyte count > 16 × 10⁹ per litre
  4. Temperature > 38°C

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 31  ·  Rapid Revision — page 23

Score · 2020 P2 Q13

Q15. The Child-Turcotte-Pugh (CTP) score for quantifying the severity of chronic liver disease includes all variables EXCEPT:

  1. Serum bilirubin
  2. Serum albumin
  3. Serum creatinine
  4. INR

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 42  ·  Rapid Revision — page 23

Score · 2021 P1 Q100

Q16. A 4-year-old comatose child is assessed by the Modified Glasgow Coma Scale. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the score given as E2V3M2 for the best eye opening response, best verbal response and best motor response respectively?

  1. Eye opening to speech, makes incomprehensible sounds and abnormal flexion
  2. Eye opening to speech, inappropriate words and abnormal flexion
  3. Eye opening to pain, moans to pain and abnormal flexion
  4. Eye opening to pain, cries to pain and extension to pain

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 98  ·  Rapid Revision — page 23

Score · 2021 P2 Q19

Q17. The Model for End Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score includes which of the following variables? 1. Serum bilirubin 2. Serum albumin 3. Serum creatinine 4. International Normalized Ratio (INR) Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 112  ·  Rapid Revision — page 23

Score · 2022 P1 Q56

Q18. Which of the following are the components of the SOFA (Sequential Organ Failure Assessment)? 1. Serum bilirubin 2. Platelet count 3. Leukocyte count 4. Serum Creatinine Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 156  ·  Rapid Revision — page 23

Score · 2022 P1 Q100

Q19. After sustaining a head injury, an 18-month-old child displays eye opening only to pain, moans on painful stimuli, and withdraws to painful stimuli. What is the modified Glasgow Coma Scale Score in this child?

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 12

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 166  ·  Rapid Revision — page 23

Score · 2023 P2 Q26

Q20. In seat belt syndrome, the most common site of bleeding is from:

  1. Bowel
  2. Mesentery
  3. Liver
  4. Spleen

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 248  ·  Rapid Revision — page 23

Score · 2023 P2 Q36

Q21. A patient with a head injury and a Glasgow Coma Scale of 10 is classified as:

  1. Minor injury
  2. Mild injury
  3. Moderate injury
  4. Severe injury

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 251  ·  Rapid Revision — page 23

Score · 2024 P1 Q7

Q22. Which one of the following is the appropriate scoring system used to assess the risk of stroke in patients of non-valvular chronic atrial fibrillation on oral anticoagulation?

  1. HAS-BLED
  2. AMT-4
  3. CURB-65
  4. CHA2DS2VASc

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 279  ·  Rapid Revision — page 23

Score · 2024 P2 Q35

Q23. Which of the following are correct in respect of Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)? 1. It is caused by the release of lipopolysaccharide endotoxin from dying E. coli bacteria. 2. It is same as bacteremia. 3. It results in Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome (MODS). 4. White cell counts of more than 12 × 10⁹/litre are present. Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 331  ·  Rapid Revision — page 23

Score · 2025 P1 Q75

Q24. Which of the following are components of SOFA scoring system? I. PaO₂/FiO₂ ratio II. Mean arterial pressure III. Glasgow coma scale IV. Prothrombin Time with INR Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. I, II and III
  2. I, II and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 398  ·  Rapid Revision — page 23

Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis/ Gastric Outlet Obstruction · 2020 P1 Q113

Q25. A 4-week old infant presents with repeated episodes of non-bilious vomiting since 7 days. The infant seems active and hungry after the vomiting. Examination reveals an olive-shaped mass in the epigastrium. Which metabolic abnormality is expected in this infant?

  1. Hyperchloremia
  2. Metabolic alkalosis
  3. Hyperkalemia
  4. Hyponatremia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 35  ·  Rapid Revision — page 27

Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis/ Gastric Outlet Obstruction · 2022 P2 Q5

Q26. The most common metabolic abnormality associated with gastric outlet obstruction is:

  1. Hypochloremic acidosis
  2. Hypochloremic alkalosis
  3. Hyperchloremic alkalosis
  4. Hyperchloremic acidosis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 175  ·  Rapid Revision — page 27

Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis/ Gastric Outlet Obstruction · 2025 P2 Q32

Q27. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding Gastric outlet obstruction associated with long standing peptic ulcer disease?

  1. Hypochloraemia alkalosis is the usual metabolic abnormality in such cases.
  2. Endoscopic biopsy is essential to exclude malignancy.
  3. Medical therapy has no role in the treatment of this condition.
  4. Operation is frequently required along with a drainage procedure.

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 431  ·  Rapid Revision — page 27

Radical Mastectomy Vs Modified Radical Mastectomy · 2021 P2 Q6

Q28. A 52-year-old female underwent MRM (Modified Radical Mastectomy). After a few years, she developed lymphedema of the ipsilateral arm. Which of the following malignancy can develop in her arm?

  1. Lymphangiosarcoma
  2. Malignant melanoma
  3. Lymphoma
  4. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 108  ·  Rapid Revision — page 29

Radical Mastectomy Vs Modified Radical Mastectomy · 2022 P2 Q4

Q29. Which of the following vital structures in the axilla should always be preserved in modified radical mastectomy? 1. Axillary vein 2. Nerve to serratus anterior 3. Nerve to latissimus dorsi 4. Intercostobrachial nerves Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 174  ·  Rapid Revision — page 29

Lymphoedema · 2020 P2 Q30

Q30. Which of the following statements regarding lymphoedema following breast cancer treatment are correct? 1. Incidence has decreased due to rarely combined therapy of axillary LN dissection and radiotherapy 2. Precipitating cause like LN metastasis is a major determinant 3. The condition is often painful 4. Oedematous limb is susceptible to bacterial infection Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 45  ·  Rapid Revision — page 30

Lymphoedema · 2025 P2 Q24

Q31. Which of the following are the symptoms commonly experienced by patients with lymphoedema? I. Swelling II. Burning sensation III. Intolerance to cold IV. Cramps Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. I, II and IV
  2. I, II and III
  3. II, III and IV
  4. I, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 426  ·  Rapid Revision — page 30

Lymphoedema · 2025 P2 Q25

Q32. Which of the following are the malignancies associated with lymphoedema? I. Kaposi Sarcoma II. Squamous cell carcinoma III. Malignant melanoma IV. Leukaemia Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. I, II and III
  2. I, II and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 426  ·  Rapid Revision — page 30

Appendix · 2025 P2 Q6

Q33. What is the most common type of tumour of Vermiform Appendix?

  1. Epithelial tumour
  2. Carcinoid tumour
  3. Germ cell tumour
  4. Papillary cell tumour

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 419  ·  Rapid Revision — page 32

Carcinoid syndrome · 2021 P2 Q14

Q34. Which of the following statements regarding Carcinoid tumour are correct? 1. Terminal ileum is the most common site for these tumours in the gastrointestinal tract 2. These tumors arise from Kulchitsky cells situated at the base of intestinal crypts 3. 5-Hydroxytryptamine is the most common vasoactive peptide produced by these tumors 4. Serum chromogranin A is a useful marker for disease recurrence Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 110  ·  Rapid Revision — page 32

Triage · 2025 P2 Q99

Q35. While performing triage in response to a disaster emergency, commonly an internationally accepted four-colour code system is used. Which one among the following four-colour categories represents the highest priority for emergency response?

  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. Yellow

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 461  ·  Rapid Revision — page 33

Triage · 2022 P2 Q17

Q36. Triaging is done to prioritize the treatment in case of trauma, and the patients are color-coded. The yellow color code signifies:

  1. urgent
  2. immediate
  3. non-urgent
  4. unsalvageable

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 179  ·  Rapid Revision — page 33

Head injuries · 2022 P2 Q19

Q37. Hypotension in an unconscious head injury patient is most commonly due to:

  1. pontine hemorrhage
  2. extradural hemorrhage
  3. intracerebral hemorrhage
  4. associated injuries of abdomen or chest

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 179  ·  Rapid Revision — page 33

Head injuries · 2020 P2 Q21

Q38. The term mid-line shift is associated with:

  1. Head injury
  2. Chest injury
  3. Abdominal injury
  4. Limb injury

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 43  ·  Rapid Revision — page 33

Head injuries · 2021 P1 Q100

Q39. A 4-year-old comatose child is assessed by the Modified Glasgow Coma Scale. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the score given as E2V3M2 for the best eye opening response, best verbal response and best motor response respectively?

  1. Eye opening to speech, makes incomprehensible sounds and abnormal flexion
  2. Eye opening to speech, inappropriate words and abnormal flexion
  3. Eye opening to pain, moans to pain and abnormal flexion
  4. Eye opening to pain, cries to pain and extension to pain

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 98  ·  Rapid Revision — page 33

Head injuries · 2021 P2 Q31

Q40. A patient with suspected head injury is brought to the emergency following road traffic accident. At the time of examination, patient is conscious with GCS 14/15 and stable vitals. There is bleeding from right ear and CSF leak from nose. Bruising is present behind the right ear. The most probable clinical diagnosis in this patient is

  1. Extradural hematoma
  2. Fracture of the base of skull
  3. Cerebral concussion
  4. Traumatic subarachnoid haemorrhage

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 116  ·  Rapid Revision — page 33

Head injuries · 2021 P2 Q37

Q41. A comatose patient after sustaining severe head injury has been admitted in neurosurgical ICU. Which of the following parameters should ideally be maintained in this patient? 1. pCO2 = 4.5 – 5.0 kPa (33-38 mm Hg) 2. MAP = 80 – 90 mm of Hg 3. pO2 > 11 kPa (> 80 mm Hg) 4. Na+ < 130 meq/L Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 118  ·  Rapid Revision — page 33

Head injuries · 2022 P1 Q100

Q42. After sustaining a head injury, an 18-month-old child displays eye opening only to pain, moans on painful stimuli, and withdraws to painful stimuli. What is the modified Glasgow Coma Scale Score in this child?

  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 12

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 166  ·  Rapid Revision — page 33

Head injuries · 2023 P2 Q36

Q43. A patient with a head injury and a Glasgow Coma Scale of 10 is classified as:

  1. Minor injury
  2. Mild injury
  3. Moderate injury
  4. Severe injury

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 251  ·  Rapid Revision — page 33

Head injuries · 2024 P2 Q33

Q44. A 30-year-old motorbike rider is brought to the emergency with history of a road traffic accident and altered consciousness. On secondary survey, the doctor notices presence of a bruise over the left mastoid process. The finding indicates

  1. fracture of mastoid process
  2. injury to the external auditory meatus
  3. fracture of the skull base
  4. soft tissue injury to the neck

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 330  ·  Rapid Revision — page 33

Head injuries · 2025 P2 Q18

Q45. Which of the following statements are correct regarding primary survey/management of traumatic head injury patient? I. Ensure adequate oxygenation and circulation II. Exclude hypoglycaemia III. Check for mechanism of injury IV. Check pupil size and response Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. I, II and III
  2. II, III and IV
  3. I, II and IV
  4. I, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 424  ·  Rapid Revision — page 33

Peptic ulcer · 2020 P1 Q30

Q46. Eradication of helicobacter pylori infection may prove beneficial in the following extra- gastric disorders EXCEPT:

  1. Unexplained vitamin B12 deficiency
  2. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
  3. Iron deficiency anaemia without gastro-intestinal bleeding
  4. Acute glomerulonephritis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 14  ·  Rapid Revision — page 36

Peptic ulcer · 2020 P2 Q12

Q47. All of the following are sequelae of peptic ulcer surgery EXCEPT:

  1. Bilious vomiting
  2. Dumping syndrome
  3. Diarrhea
  4. Increased appetite

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 42  ·  Rapid Revision — page 36

Peptic ulcer · 2020 P2 Q18

Q48. Valentino’s syndrome is:

  1. Pain on per-vaginal examination in pelvic abscess
  2. Pain over the left shoulder in left hypochondriac collection
  3. Pain over the left groin in perirenal collection
  4. Pain in the right iliac fossa in perforated peptic ulcer

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 43  ·  Rapid Revision — page 36

Peptic ulcer · 2021 P1 Q27

Q49. Consider the following statements in respect of Helicobacter Pylori: 1. It is a gram positive, spiral-shaped bacterium. 2. It uses an adhesion molecule (BabA) to bind to the ‘Lewis b’ antigen on gastric epithelial cells. 3. It produces ‘urease’ enzyme that helps to raise the pH around the bacterium. 4. It exclusively colonizes only ‘gastric-type’ epithelium. Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 78  ·  Rapid Revision — page 36

Peptic ulcer · 2021 P1 Q28

Q50. The quadruple therapy regime (or OBMT regime) for Helicobacter Pylori eradication comprises which of the following drugs?

  1. Omeprazole, Bismuth sub citrate, Metronidazole, Tetracycline
  2. Ofloxacin, Bismuth sub citrate, Metronidazole, Tetracycline
  3. Omeprazole, Beclomethasone, Metronidazole, Tacrolimus
  4. Omeprazole, Beclomethasone, Mometasone, Tetracycline

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 78  ·  Rapid Revision — page 36

Peptic ulcer · 2022 P1 Q20

Q51. Which of the following drugs are implicated in peptic ulcer disease, not caused by Helicobacter pylori and NSAIDs?. 1.Clopidogrel 2.Glucocorticoids 3.Bisphosphonates 4.Colloidal bismuth subcitrate Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2, and 3
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1, 3, and 4
  4. 2 & 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 146  ·  Rapid Revision — page 36

Peptic ulcer · 2022 P2 Q29

Q52. Which of the following statements regarding peptic ulcers are correct? 1. Duodenal ulcers are more common as compared to gastric ulcers. 2. Helicobacter pylori and NSAIDs are most common causative agents. 3. Bleeding is the most common complication associated with posterior duodenal ulcer. Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 182  ·  Rapid Revision — page 36

Peptic ulcer · 2023 P1 Q30

Q53. Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with the development of which one of the following lymphoid malignancies?

  1. Burkitt’s lymphoma
  2. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  3. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma
  4. Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 214  ·  Rapid Revision — page 36

Peptic ulcer · 2023 P1 Q93

Q54. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to peptic ulcer prophylaxis?

  1. Stress ulceration during clinical illness is uncommon
  2. Ulcer prophylaxis should be continued once absorption of enteral feed is established
  3. Proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) are effective at reducing the incidence of ulceration
  4. PPIs when used with antibiotics may decrease the risk of Clostridium difficile infection

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 232  ·  Rapid Revision — page 36

Peptic ulcer · 2023 P2 Q25

Q55. A young 28-year-old male was operated for duodenal ulcer perforation peritonitis. After recovering well for five days, he developed high fever with chills and symptoms of toxemia. He also experienced right shoulder tip pain and intractable hiccups. The most likely diagnosis is:

  1. Surgical site infection
  2. Postoperative peritonitis
  3. Subphrenic abscess
  4. Right lobe liver abscess

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 248  ·  Rapid Revision — page 36

Peptic ulcer · 2024 P1 Q17

Q56. With regard to Helicobacter pylori eradication in peptic ulcer disease, consider the following statements: 1. Proton-pump inhibitor is taken with two antibiotics. 2. Treatment is prescribed for at least 7 days. 3. Treatment of Helicobacter pylori infection leads to vitamin B12 deficiency. 4. Patients requiring long-term NSAIDs should undergo Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy to reduce ulcer risk. Which of the statements are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 283  ·  Rapid Revision — page 36

Peptic ulcer · 2024 P1 Q19

Q57. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Upper Gastro Intestinal Bleeding (UGIB) ?

  1. Esophageal varices are the most common cause
  2. Eradication of Helicobacter pylori in patients with bleeding ulcers decreases the rebleeding rates to less than 5%
  3. Patients with cardiovascular disease who are on aspirin for secondary prevention should not restart their aspirin
  4. Trans jugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPS) should be considered as therapy only after one week of hospitalization for acute variceal bleeding

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 285  ·  Rapid Revision — page 36

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) · 2022 P1 Q58

Q58. Which of the following may constitute the characteristic triad of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome? - Severe peptic ulceration - Gastric acid hyposecretion - Gastrinoma - Pancreatic Neuro-endocrine tumour Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2, 3, and 4
  3. 1, 3, and 4
  4. 1, 2, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 156  ·  Rapid Revision — page 40

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) · 2023 P1 Q15

Q59. The most common non-pancreatic site for tumour distribution in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is

  1. duodenum
  2. ovaries
  3. stomach
  4. liver

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 211  ·  Rapid Revision — page 40

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) · 2023 P2 Q16

Q60. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by which of the following? 1. Fulminating gastric ulcers 2. Recurrent ulceration despite treatment 3. Non-beta islet cell tumor of pancreas 4. Recurrent episodes of dysentery Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 245  ·  Rapid Revision — page 40

Oesophagus · 2020 P1 Q27

Q61. Which one of the following statements about Barrett’s Oesophagus is NOT correct?

  1. It is a pre-malignant condition
  2. Normal squamous cells lining the lower oesophagus are replaced by columnar cells
  3. Normal columnar cells lining the lower oesophagus are replaced by squamous cells
  4. It is an adaptive response to chronic gastro-oesophageal reflux

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 13  ·  Rapid Revision — page 40

Oesophagus · 2020 P1 Q29

Q62. Spontaneous oesophageal perforation after a bout of forceful vomiting or retching is characteristically seen in which one of the following conditions?

  1. Menetrier’s disease
  2. Boerhaave’s syndrome
  3. Achalasia of the oesophagus
  4. Barrett’s oesophagus

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 13  ·  Rapid Revision — page 40

Oesophagus · 2024 P2 Q11

Q63. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Barrett’s oesophagus? 1. It is a metaplastic change. 2. It is a risk factor for development of adenocarcinoma. 3. Ingestion of NSAIDs is the a etiological factor for its development. 4. Endoscopic mucosal resection is an effective treatment. Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 323  ·  Rapid Revision — page 40

Oesophagus · 2025 P2 Q29

Q64. Which of the following are considered aetiological factors for Adenocarcinoma oesophagus? I. Barrett’s oesophagus II. GERD III. Obesity IV. Alcohol intake Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. I, II and III
  2. I, II and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 430  ·  Rapid Revision — page 40

Plummer Vinson Syndrome (PVS) · 2025 P2 Q30

Q65. Consider the following statements regarding Plummer-Vinson syndrome: I. Findings include cervical oesophageal web, iron deficiency anaemia and dysphagia. II. It is a rare disease, mainly affecting middle-aged women. III. There is predisposition to postcricoid, cervical oesophageal cancer. IV. Treatment is usually surgical. Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. II, III and IV
  2. I, II and IV
  3. I, III and IV
  4. I, II and III

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 430  ·  Rapid Revision — page 41

Meckel's Diverticulum · 2023 P2 Q17

Q66. Which of the following statements regarding Meckel's Diverticulum are correct?

  1. It represents a persistent remnant of the Vitello-intestinal duct
  2. It is a pseudo-diverticulum of the gastrointestinal tract
  3. It is most commonly found on the antimesenteric border of the ileum
  4. Heterotopic mucosa is present in 20% of patients. Which statemen is true

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 245  ·  Rapid Revision — page 42

mesenteric cyst · 2021 P2 Q27

Q67. A 45 year old female patient presents with a painless firm abdominal swelling of size 10 × 8 cm near the umbilicus. The swelling can be moved freely in a plane at right angle to the line of attachment of the mesentery. The most probable clinical diagnosis in this patient is

  1. Dermoid cyst
  2. Ovarian cyst
  3. Mesenteric cyst
  4. Hydatid cyst

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 115  ·  Rapid Revision — page 43

Pneumothorax. · 2020 P2 Q24

Q68. A 50-year old male with significant smoking history presented in the surgical emergency with sudden severe breathlessness. Chest X-ray shows right sided Pneumothorax. The appropriate management requires:

  1. Aspiration of air using a 16-18 G cannula
  2. Right chest drain of size 8-14 Fr
  3. Administration of oxygen via face mask
  4. Implementation of mechanical ventilation

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 44  ·  Rapid Revision — page 44

Pneumothorax. · 2020 P2 Q34

Q69. During subclavian vein puncture in a surgical ward suddenly a patient developed severe breathlessness. On auscultation breath sound was absent and the ipsilateral chest was tympanitic on percussion. The probable diagnosis is:

  1. Iatrogenic pneumothorax
  2. Iatrogenic hemothorax
  3. Spontaneous pneumothorax
  4. Tension pneumothorax

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 46  ·  Rapid Revision — page 44

Pneumothorax. · 2021 P2 Q33

Q70. A patient of Road Traffic Accident presents to the emergency with increasing restlessness and difficulty in breathing. The respiratory rate is 26 breaths/minute; there are distended neck veins; trachea is deviated to the right side with hyper-resonant chest on left side and absence of breath sounds on left side. Which of the following steps are correct? 1. The most probable clinical diagnosis is left tension pneumothorax 2. Immediate chest decompression using wide bore cannula in left second intercostal space should be done 3. Immediate chest X-ray should be done to confirm the clinical diagnosis 4. Definitive chest tube insertion in left fifth intercostal space should be done Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 116  ·  Rapid Revision — page 44

Pneumothorax. · 2025 P1 Q88

Q71. A 56 year male came with acute onset breathlessness and found to have pneumothorax. The resident doctor decided to insert intercostal drain. Which one of the following sites is suitable for such a procedure?

  1. Hesselbach’s triangle
  2. Petit’s triangle
  3. Triangle of safety
  4. Triangle of auscultation

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 402  ·  Rapid Revision — page 44

Type of healing · 2021 P2 Q1

Q72. Which of the follow ing are types of wound healing ? 1. Primary Intention 2. Secondary Intention 3. Tertiary Intention 4. Quaternary Intention Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 106  ·  Rapid Revision — page 46

Pancreatitis · 2021 P2 Q22

Q73. Which of the following are options for management of a pancreatic pseudocyst? 1. Pancreaticoduodenectomy 2. Cystogastrostomy 3. Percutaneous drainage 4. Endoscopic drainage Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 113  ·  Rapid Revision — page 46

Pancreatitis · 2022 P1 Q17

Q74. Which one of the following are markers of poor prognosis in acute pancreatitis? 1.Elderly individual 2.Increased white blood cell count 3.Low serum calcium 4.Hypercarbia Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2, and 3
  2. 1, 2, and 4
  3. 1, 3, and 4
  4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 145  ·  Rapid Revision — page 46

Pancreatitis · 2022 P1 Q18

Q75. Which of the following are the common causes of acute pancreatitis? 1.Gallstone 2.Alcohol 3.Post-ERCP 4.Campylobacter jejuni Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2, and 3
  2. 1, 2, and 4
  3. 1, 3, and 4
  4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 145  ·  Rapid Revision — page 46

Pancreatitis · 2022 P1 Q57

Q76. Purtsher’s retinopathy may be associated with

  1. Acute fulminant hepatic failure
  2. Acute pancreatitis
  3. Acute peritonitis
  4. Acute cholecystitis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 156  ·  Rapid Revision — page 46

Pancreatitis · 2022 P2 Q11

Q77. Which of the following scoring systems are used for assessing the severity of acute pancreatitis? - Ranson and Glasgow score - APACHE score - MELD score - Modified Marshall score Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 177  ·  Rapid Revision — page 46

Pancreatitis · 2022 P2 Q31

Q78. Which of the following are included in the Ranson scoring system to predict the severity of acute pancreatitis at the time of admission? 1. WBC count > 15 × 10⁸ /L 2. Blood glucose > 200 mg/dL 3. LDH > 350 units/L 4. AST > 250 units/L Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 183  ·  Rapid Revision — page 46

Pancreatitis · 2023 P1 Q17

Q79. The most common cause of shock in severe acute pancreatitis (SAP) is

  1. hypovolemic shock resulting from third space loss
  2. septic shock resulting from infected pancreatic necrosis
  3. cardiogenic shock resulting from SIRS
  4. abdominal compartment syndrome

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 211  ·  Rapid Revision — page 46

Pancreatitis · 2024 P1 Q15

Q80. Which of the following are complications of acute pancreatitis ? 1. Hypoxia 2. Hypercalcemia 3. Hyperglycemia 4. Reduced serum albumin Select the correct answer using the code below

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 3 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 283  ·  Rapid Revision — page 46

Pancreatitis · 2024 P2 Q13

Q81. Which of the following are local complications of acute pancreatitis? 1. Pseudocyst 2. Pleural effusion 3. Ileus 4. Acute fluid collection Select the correct answer using the code below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 323  ·  Rapid Revision — page 46

Pancreatitis · 2025 P1 Q24

Q82. A 40 year old man with a known case of chronic pancreatitis presents to the OPD with complaint of skin pigmentation over the abdomen. The patient gives a history of chronic use of a hot water bottle to relieve the abdominal discomfort. Which one of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis ?

  1. Erythema Infectiosum
  2. Erythema marginatum
  3. Erythema nodosum
  4. Erythema ab igne

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 378  ·  Rapid Revision — page 46

Achalasia cardia · 2021 P1 Q26

Q83. Infection with which of the following organisms can cause a syndrome which is clinically indistinguishable from achalasia of the oesophagus?

  1. Trypanosoma cruzi
  2. Schistosoma haematobium
  3. Mycobacterium leprae
  4. Plasmodium falciparum

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 78  ·  Rapid Revision — page 48

Achalasia cardia · 2022 P2 Q27

Q84. Which of the following are used in the treatment of achalasia? 1. Botulinum toxin 2. Beta blockers 3. Pneumatic dilation 4. Heller’s myotomy Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 182  ·  Rapid Revision — page 48

Achalasia cardia · 2024 P1 Q24

Q85. A sigmoid configuration along with tapering beak-like deformity at the lower esophageal sphincter (LES )on barium swallow is a feature of :

  1. Diffuse esophageal spasm
  2. SCC of esophagus
  3. Achalasia cardia
  4. Barret's esophagus

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 286  ·  Rapid Revision — page 48

Compartment syndrome , 2OO7 · 2020 P2 Q1

Q86. Indications for fasciotomy in compartment syndrome include all EXCEPT:

  1. Distal sensory disturbance
  2. Compartment pressure > 30 mm Hg
  3. Pain on passive movement of affected muscles
  4. Palpable distal pulses

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 39  ·  Rapid Revision — page 48

Compartment syndrome , 2OO7 · 2020 P2 Q28

Q87. Which one of the following statements about Compartment Syndrome is NOT correct?

  1. It is most frequently observed in a closed fracture
  2. Pain occurs during active movement but not during passive movement of muscles
  3. Fasciotomy is the preferred treatment option
  4. Volkmann’s Ischemic contracture is a late complication

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 45  ·  Rapid Revision — page 48

Pressure sore · 2020 P2 Q33

Q88. Stage III “Pressure sore” is full thickness skin loss extending:

  1. into subcutaneous tissue but not through fascia
  2. through subcutaneous tissue into fascia
  3. through subcutaneous tissue into fascia and muscles
  4. through subcutaneous tissue into fascia, muscles and bone

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 46  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Pressure sore · 2022 P2 Q23

Q89. The most common site for development of a pressure sore (in debilitated patients) is:

  1. heel
  2. occiput
  3. ischium
  4. greater trochanter

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 181  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Pressure sore · 2025 P2 Q11

Q90. The commonest site of pressure sore is:

  1. Heel
  2. Sacrum
  3. Ischium
  4. Occiput

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 421  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Hernia · 2020 P2 Q16

Q91. ‘Swiss cheese defects’ are seen during laparoscopic repair of:

  1. Ventral hernia
  2. Inguinal hernia
  3. Obturator hernia
  4. Femoral hernia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 42  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Hernia · 2020 P2 Q20

Q92. Structure not forming boundaries of the “Triangle of Doom” seen during laparoscopic inguinal hernia surgery dissection is:

  1. Vas deferens
  2. Inferior epigastric artery
  3. Spermatic cord vessels
  4. Peritoneum

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 43  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Hernia · 2020 P2 Q37

Q93. Which of the following is NOT a tissue repair surgery for inguinal hernia repair?

  1. Bassini’s repair
  2. Shouldice repair
  3. Stoppa’s repair
  4. Desarda repair

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 47  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Hernia · 2020 P2 Q38

Q94. Which one of the following type of meshes is recommended for intraperitoneal use in abdominal wall hernia?

  1. Light weight, porous meshes
  2. Heavy weight, porous meshes
  3. Absorbable meshes
  4. Tissue separating meshes

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 48  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Hernia · 2021 P2 Q28

Q95. A 45 year old male patient, a known case of left inguinal hernia presents to the emergency with an acute pain abdomen associated with vomiting and abdominal distension. His pulse rate is 102/min, BP is 100/60 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 24/min. On local examination, the skin overlying the swelling is tense and erythematous. There is localized tenderness over the swelling; the swelling is irreducible with absence of cough impulse. The most probable clinical diagnosis in this patient is

  1. Obstructed hernia
  2. Strangulated hernia
  3. Incarcerated hernia
  4. Irreducible hernia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 115  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Hernia · 2021 P2 Q29

Q96. Mayo's repair is done for

  1. Inguinal hernia
  2. Femoral hernia
  3. Umbilical hernia
  4. Incisional hernia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 115  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Hernia · 2022 P2 Q7

Q97. Which of the following factors predispose to the development of incisional hernia? 1. Malnutrition 2. Postoperative wound infection 3. Non-absorbable suture material 4. Immunocompromised patient Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 175  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Hernia · 2022 P2 Q34

Q98. When the hernia extends between the layers of abdominal wall muscles and not directly through them, it is called:

  1. Richter’s hernia
  2. Spigelian hernia
  3. Amyand’s hernia
  4. Littre’s hernia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 184  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Hernia · 2022 P2 Q35

Q99. Which of the following are tension-free inguinal hernia repairs? 1. Stoppa’s repair 2. Lichtenstein’s repair 3. Laparoscopic TEP repair 4. Desarda’s repair Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 184  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Hernia · 2024 P2 Q17

Q100. Which of the following are features of umbilical hernia in adults? 1. Patients are commonly overweight with a thinned and attenuated midline raphe. 2. Most patients complain of pain due to tissue tension. 3. Men are affected more commonly than women. 4. Hernia repair can be done by the technique described by Mayo. Select the correct answer using the code below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 324  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Hernia · 2024 P2 Q25

Q101. Which of the following are correct for herniation via foramen of Morgagni? 1. It occurs posteriorly in chest. 2. Transverse colon is the commonest content. 3. Defect is between sternal and costal attachments. 4. It is a type of congenital hernia. Select the answer using the code given below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 327  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Hernia · 2025 P2 Q20

Q102. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Inguinal hernias in children? I. It is more common in full-term boys. II. It should be repaired promptly. III. It is always indirect. IV. It may frequently be transilluminant. Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. I, II and III
  2. II, III and IV
  3. I, II and IV
  4. I, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 424  ·  Rapid Revision — page 49

Appendicitis · 2021 P2 Q17

Q103. Which of the following is NOT a classical symptom of acute appendicitis?

  1. Anorexia
  2. Periumbilical colic
  3. Constipation
  4. Nausea

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 111  ·  Rapid Revision — page 55

Appendicitis · 2025 P2 Q34

Q104. The first imaging modality of choice for a 35-year-old lady, presenting to surgical emergency with complaints of colicky pain in right lower quadrant of abdomen and vomiting since last 2 days is:

  1. Contrast CT abdomen
  2. Non-contrast CT abdomen
  3. Ultrasound abdomen
  4. Plain X-ray abdomen erect view

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 432  ·  Rapid Revision — page 55

cholelithiasis (GB stone) · 2022 P2 Q21

Q105. Which of the following are included in Grade II acute cholecystitis as per ‘Tokyo Consensus Guidelines for Severity’? 1. Elevated white cell count (> 18000/mm³) 2. Renal dysfunction 3. Duration > 72 hours 4. Marked local inflammation Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 180  ·  Rapid Revision — page 57

Inflammatory Bowel Disease imp point · 2021 P1 Q20

Q106. A patient with Crohn’s disease underwent ileal resection. Which of the following complications may develop in this patient? 1. Oxalate rich renal calculi 2. Diarrhoea 3. Fat malabsorption 4. Hypernatremia Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 76  ·  Rapid Revision — page 57

Inflammatory Bowel Disease imp point · 2021 P2 Q18

Q107. Among the extra intestinal manifestations of Crohn's disease which one of the following is related to the disease activity?

  1. Eye complications (Iritis/Uveitis)
  2. Renal calculi
  3. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
  4. Chronic active hepatitis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 112  ·  Rapid Revision — page 57

Inflammatory Bowel Disease imp point · 2022 P2 Q25

Q108. Which of the following are the extraintestinal manifestations of Crohn’s disease related to disease activity? 1. Amyloidosis 2. Pyoderma gangrenosum 3. Primary sclerosing cholangitis 4. Arthropathy Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 181  ·  Rapid Revision — page 57

Inflammatory Bowel Disease imp point · 2023 P1 Q70

Q109. Consider the following statements regarding inflammatory bowel disease: - Ulcerative colitis (UC) involves the terminal ileum and rarely causes proctitis. - Cobblestone appearance of the bowel is seen in Crohn’s disease. - Skip lesions are a characteristic of ulcerative colitis but never seen in Crohn’s disease. - Ulcerative colitis is more common in smokers than non-smokers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 2 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 225  ·  Rapid Revision — page 57

Inflammatory Bowel Disease imp point · 2023 P2 Q21

Q110. Which one of the following statements regarding Inflammatory Bowel Disease is correct?

  1. Rectum is always involved in Crohn's disease
  2. Fistula formation is common in Ulcerative Colitis
  3. Stricture formation is common in Ulcerative Colitis
  4. Perianal disease is common in Crohn's disease

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 247  ·  Rapid Revision — page 57

Inflammatory Bowel Disease imp point · 2025 P1 Q20

Q111. Which one of the following biologic agents used in the treatment of inflammatory Bowel Disease acts by inhibiting the enzyme ‘Janus Kinase’ ?

  1. Infliximab
  2. Adalimumab
  3. Vedolizumab
  4. Tofacitinib

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 376  ·  Rapid Revision — page 57

Celiac disease · 2021 P1 Q30

Q112. Which of the following diseases may be associated with Coeliac disease? 1. Type-2 Diabetes mellitus 2. IgA deficiency 3. Down syndrome 4. Turner’s syndrome Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 78  ·  Rapid Revision — page 59

Celiac disease · 2021 P1 Q31

Q113. Consider the following statements regarding Coeliac disease: 1. There is a strong association of the disease with Human Leukocyte Antigen, HLA-DQ2/DQ8. 2. There is intolerance to gluten found in wheat, rye, barley and oats. 3. In the elderly, the disease presents with symptoms ranging from florid malabsorption, weight loss and anemia to oral ulceration, dyspepsia and bloating. 4. In suspected patients, small bowel biopsy is contraindicated. Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 78  ·  Rapid Revision — page 59

Celiac disease · 2023 P1 Q20

Q114. A 14-year boy came with chronic diarrhea and malnutrition. The physician suspected celiac disease. Which of the following are correct in his diagnostic workup? – Presence of IgA antiendomysial antibody – reduced height of villi on intestinal biopsy – Increased lymphocytes in lamina propria in small intestine biopsy – Absence of tTG antibody in serum Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 211  ·  Rapid Revision — page 59

Celiac disease · 2024 P1 Q16

Q115. The Gold Standard for diagnosis of Celiac disease is :

  1. Endoscopic small bowel biopsy
  2. Stool routine microscopy and culture
  3. Abdominal ultrasound
  4. Anti-parietal cell antibodies

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 283  ·  Rapid Revision — page 59

Whipple Disease · 2024 P1 Q21

Q116. Whipple’s disease is characterized by the infiltration of small intestinal mucosa by 'foamy' macrophages. Which one of the following histological stains is characteristically used to stain them?

  1. Sudan Black-B
  2. Gentian violet
  3. Methylene blue
  4. Periodic acid Schiff

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 285  ·  Rapid Revision — page 60

Irritable Bowel Disease · 2022 P1 Q21

Q117. Which of the following are symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome? 1.Gas and flatulence 2.Abdominal pain 3.Blood in stools 4. Diarrhoea Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2, and 3
  2. 1, 2, and 4
  3. 1, 3, and 4
  4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 146  ·  Rapid Revision — page 60

Irritable Bowel Disease · 2022 P1 Q24

Q118. Irritable bowel syndrome is favored by which of the following? 1.Worsening of symptoms by stress 2.Recurrent abdominal discomfort 3.Age more than 50 years at onset 4.Alternating diarrhea and constipation Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2, and 3
  2. 1, 2, and 4
  3. 1, 3, and 4
  4. 2, 3, and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 147  ·  Rapid Revision — page 60

Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH) · 2023 P2 Q30

Q119. Which of the following are seen in Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus? (1) Hearing loss (2) Gait disturbance (3) Incontinence (4) Cognitive decline which is correct answer

  1. 1,2 and 3
  2. 1,2 and 4
  3. 1,3 and 4
  4. 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 249  ·  Rapid Revision — page 61

Right-Sided vs. Left-Sided Colorectal Carcinoma · 2023 P2 Q18

Q120. Which of the following statements regarding Colorectal Carcinoma are correct? (1) Left-sided Colorectal Carcinoma presents with bleeding per rectum. (2) Right-sided Colorectal Carcinoma presents with iron deficiency anemia. (3) Right-sided Colorectal Carcinoma is more common than left-sided Colorectal Carcinoma. (4) Colonoscopy is the investigation of choice for suspected Colorectal Carcinoma. Which statemen is true

  1. 1,2 and 3
  2. 2,3,and 4
  3. 1,3 and 4
  4. 1,2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 246  ·  Rapid Revision — page 61

Blood transfusion · 2020 P2 Q32

Q121. Which one of the following is NOT a complication of massive blood transfusion?

  1. Coagulopathy
  2. Hypocalcemia
  3. Hyperthermia
  4. Hyperkalemia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 46  ·  Rapid Revision — page 62

Blood transfusion · 2020 P1 Q50

Q122. Cryoprecipitate cannot be used for treatment of which one of the following conditions?

  1. Von Willebrand disease
  2. Hypofibrinogenemia
  3. Hemophilia–B
  4. Hemophilia–A

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 20  ·  Rapid Revision — page 62

Blood transfusion · 2021 P1 Q48

Q123. Which one of the following statements is correct for an individual with blood group AB?

  1. A antigen on RBC; Anti-B antibody in plasma.
  2. A and B antigens on RBC; no antibody in plasma.
  3. B antigen on RBC; Anti-A antibody in plasma.
  4. No antigen on RBC; Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies in plasma.

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 84  ·  Rapid Revision — page 62

Blood transfusion · 2021 P2 Q40

Q124. Perioperative benefit from transfusion is with a haemoglobin level of:

  1. < 6 gm/dl
  2. 6-8 gm/dl
  3. 8-10 gm/dl
  4. > 10 gm/dl

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 120  ·  Rapid Revision — page 62

Blood transfusion · 2022 P1 Q35

Q125. Which one of the following is correct regarding blood components in clinical practice?

  1. ABO blood group antigens are polypeptide chains on the surface of RBCs
  2. Platelets can be stored for up to 35 days
  3. Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when mother’s IgA anti-RBC antibodies cross the placenta and lyse fetal RBCs
  4. Transfusion-associated GVHD can be prevented by prior irradiation of transfused blood.

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 150  ·  Rapid Revision — page 62

Blood transfusion · 2023 P1 Q33

Q126. Which of the following viruses can be transmitted via transfusion of infected blood? 1. Hepatitis B virus 2. Hepatitis C virus 3. Human immunodeficiency virus 4. Parvovirus B19 Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 215  ·  Rapid Revision — page 62

Blood transfusion · 2021 P1 Q72

Q127. The characteristic rash seen on the face in a case of Parvovirus B19 infection is called:

  1. Slapped cheek rash
  2. Butterfly rash
  3. Melasma-like rash
  4. Christmas tree rash

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 91  ·  Rapid Revision — page 62

Blood transfusion · 2023 P1 Q34

Q128. Which one of the following correctly describes the mode of inheritance of haemophilia B?

  1. Autosomal dominant
  2. Autosomal recessive
  3. X-linked dominant
  4. X-linked recessive

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 215  ·  Rapid Revision — page 62

Shock · 2020 P1 Q92

Q129. All of the following are clinical features of hypovolemic shock EXCEPT:

  1. Cold clammy skin
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Hypotension
  4. Oliguria

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 30  ·  Rapid Revision — page 63

Shock · 2023 P1 Q17

Q130. The most common cause of shock in severe acute pancreatitis (SAP) is:

  1. hypovolemic shock resulting from third space loss
  2. septic shock resulting from infected pancreatic necrosis
  3. cardiogenic shock resulting from SIRS
  4. abdominal compartment syndrome

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 211  ·  Rapid Revision — page 63

Shock · 2024 P2 Q39

Q131. Distributive shock is described by which of the following patterns of cardiovascular responses? 1. Vasodilation 2. Reduced peripheral vascular resistance 3. Inadequate ‘afterload’ 4. Low cardiac output Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 4
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 332  ·  Rapid Revision — page 63

Shock · 2024 P2 Q40

Q132. The best measure of organ perfusion and the best monitor of adequacy of shock therapy is:

  1. central venous pressure
  2. pulmonary wedge pressure
  3. urine output
  4. restoring blood pressure/pulse vital parameters

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 332  ·  Rapid Revision — page 63

Shock · 2021 P1 Q97

Q133. A 10-year-old girl is diagnosed with dengue fever. She has abdominal pain and persistent vomiting. Examination reveals normal blood pressure, but the hematocrit is found to be increased. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial fluid management?

  1. Ringer lactate @ 3 mL/kg/hour
  2. Ringer lactate @ 5 mL/kg/hour
  3. Ringer lactate @ 7 mL/kg/hour
  4. Ringer lactate @ 10 mL/kg/hour

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 97  ·  Rapid Revision — page 63

Fast · 2022 P2 Q12

Q134. Which of the following statements regarding a patient with liver trauma are correct? - Liver is the most common organ injured following abdominal trauma. - Surgical exploration (laparotomy) is required in hemodynamically unstable patients and patients with free intraperitoneal fluid on FAST. - Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen should be done in hemodynamically stable patients. - Blunt injuries have a higher mortality as compared to penetrating injuries. Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 177  ·  Rapid Revision — page 65

Fast · 2023 P2 Q28

Q135. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding eFAST in trauma?

  1. It is a technique to assess free fluid in the abdominal cavity only
  2. It is a technique to assess free fluid in the abdominal, thoracic, and pericardial cavities
  3. It is a technique to assess free fluid in the pelvic cavity
  4. It is a technique to assess free fluid in the pleural cavity

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 248  ·  Rapid Revision — page 65

Damage Control Surgery · 2024 P2 Q19

Q136. Which of the following are stages of damage control surgery? 1. Patient’s selection 2. Control of haemorrhage 3. Resuscitation in ICU 4. Preventive surgery Select the correct answer using the code below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 325  ·  Rapid Revision — page 66

Damage Control Surgery · 2024 P2 Q31

Q137. A 30-year-old road traffic accident victim is being taken up for emergency laparotomy for hemoperitoneum and suspected multiorgan trauma. Which one of the following will be an indication for performing damage control surgery?

  1. Blood pressure < 100 mm Hg
  2. Acidosis with pH < 7·32
  3. Hypothermia < 36°C
  4. Coagulopathy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 330  ·  Rapid Revision — page 66

Felty s syndrome? · 2022 P2 Q39

Q138. Which of the following are correct about Felty’s syndrome? 1. It is associated with rheumatoid arthritis. 2. It may present with leukopenia. 3. It may have splenomegaly. 4. Splenectomy always improves the blood picture. Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 186  ·  Rapid Revision — page 67

Burn · 2021 P1 Q111

Q139. Which one of the following is used to estimate the surface area of burn injuries in children less than 15 years of age?

  1. Berkow body surface area chart
  2. Rule of Nines
  3. Lund and Browder chart
  4. Parkland formula

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 102  ·  Rapid Revision — page 68

Burn · 2024 P1 Q105

Q140. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the fluid management of pediatric inpatients with burn injuries? 1. The Parkland formula estimates the amount of fluid to be replaced over 24 hours. 2. Volume of fluid (mL) = 4 mL × Weight (kg) × Total body surface area burn(%). 3. Additional maintenance fluid therapy is also to be given to the child. 4. Half of the resuscitation volume should be given over 6 hours and the remaining half over the next 18 hours. Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 4
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 312  ·  Rapid Revision — page 68

Budd-Chiari Syndrome (BCS) · 2022 P2 Q30

Q141. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Budd-Chiari syndrome? 1. Venous drainage of liver is occluded by hepatic vein thrombosis. 2. It most commonly affects young males. 3. It is associated with protein C, protein S and antithrombin III deficiency. 4. Abdominal discomfort and ascites are the most common features associated with acute thrombosis. Select the correct answer using the code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 182  ·  Rapid Revision — page 70

Budd-Chiari Syndrome (BCS) · 2025 P2 Q16

Q142. Which one of following statements is correct regarding Budd-Chiari Syndrome (BCS)?

  1. It principally affects young males
  2. Venous drainage of the liver is occluded by IVC thrombus
  3. Quadrate lobe (Segment 4 and 5) undergoes hypertrophy
  4. Abdominal discomfort and ascites are the main presenting features

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 423  ·  Rapid Revision — page 70

Portal Hypertension Classification · 2023 P2 Q22

Q143. A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used for the management of:

  1. Corrosive poisoning
  2. Variceal bleeding
  3. Asphyxia
  4. Tension pneumothorax

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 247  ·  Rapid Revision — page 70

Portal Hypertension Classification · 2024 P1 Q23

Q144. When the serum ascites to albumin gradient (SAAG) is less than 1.1 gm/dL, then which of the following causes of ascites may be considered? 1. Infection 2. Malignancy 3. Cardiac ascites 4. Portal hypertension Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 3 and 4
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 286  ·  Rapid Revision — page 70

Portal Hypertension Classification · 2025 P1 Q94

Q145. Which one of the following is correctly matched regarding classification of portal hypertension according to site of vascular obstruction ?

  1. Sinusoidal – Veno-occlusive disease
  2. Pre-hepatic presinusoidal – Portal vein thrombosis
  3. Intrahepatic presinusoidal – Cirrhosis
  4. Post-hepatic post sinusoidal – Schistosomiasis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 404  ·  Rapid Revision — page 70

Pancreatic Tumours Quick Revision · 2024 P2 Q14

Q146. Which of the following are risk factors for the development of pancreatic cancer? 1. Cigarette smoking 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Caucasian ethnicity 4. Male gender Select the correct answer using the code below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 323  ·  Rapid Revision — page 71

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