Cardiovascular System (CVS) — UPSC CMS MCQs (Medicine)

Question 1

All of the following are indications for treadmill testing / exercise-testing EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

A. To confirm the diagnosis of angina

Answer

To evaluate stable angina

Answer

To assess outcome after coronary revascularization

Answer

To evaluate the treatment efficacy of antianginal drugs

Question 2

A 60-year-old man comes to emergency with history of chest pain, which is acute onset. The ECG shows ST depression and T waves inversion. Cardiac biomarkers in blood are not elevated. What will be the appropriate management?

Accepted Answer

C. Antiplatelets + LMW Heparin subcutaneous

Answer

Oxygen + Aspirin + Ticagrelor + Metoprolol

Answer

Oxygen + Sublingual Nitroglycerin + Antiplatelets + Streptokinase

Answer

Oxygen + Sublingual Nitroglycerin + Digoxin

Question 3

A 50-year-old man reports to Emergency with breathlessness, palpitations and acute chest pain. On auscultation, there is systolic murmur at apex and ECG shows ST elevations in anterior chest leads. Which one of the following would be the next choice of investigation?

Accepted Answer

B. Echocardiography

Answer

Cardiac marker troponin T/I

Answer

TMT

Answer

24-hour Holter monitoring

Question 4

A 60-year-old diabetic female presents with acute myocardial infarction. ECG changes include ST elevation greater than 1 mm in lead aVR. The likely localization of thrombosis is in

Accepted Answer

D. Left Main or Proximal LAD

Answer

Right Coronary Artery

Answer

Distal LAD

Answer

Left Circumflex Artery

Question 5

Consider the following statements for diagnosing ventricular aneurysm in a patient with recent myocardial infarction:
I. Paradoxical impulse on chest wall
II. Persistent ST elevation on ECG
III. Unusual bulge from cardiac silhouette on X-ray
IV. Presence of pulsus paradoxus
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

C. I, II and III

Answer

I and II only

Answer

I and IV

Answer

II, III and IV

Question 6

The SA node is situated at the junction of:

Accepted Answer

A. SVC and RA

Answer

SVC and LA

Answer

LA and LV

Answer

IVC and RA

Question 7

High output cardiac failure is caused by which of the following diseases?
1. Beri-Beri
2. Severe anaemia
3. Thyrotoxicosis
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

1 and 2 only

Answer

2 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only

Question 8

Left atrial dilatation on X-ray chest is characterized by which of the following?
1. Straight left heart border
2. Rounding of left heart border
3. Double cardiac shadow
4. Widening of the angle of carina
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

C. 1, 3 and 4

Answer

1 and 3 only

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Question 9

A 28-year male is suspected of having hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM). Which of the following statements are likely to be true on his examination?
1. Maneuvers that decrease LV preload will cause the murmur to intensify.
2. Maneuvers that decrease LV afterload will cause decrease in intensity of murmur.
3. Murmur of HOCM becomes softer with passive leg raising.
4. Murmur of HOCM becomes louder with squatting.
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

A. 1 and 3

Answer

2 and 3

Answer

2 and 4

Answer

1 and 4

Question 10

Thickened ventricular wall with normal diastolic function is a feature of

Accepted Answer

D. athlete’s heart

Answer

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Answer

restrictive cardiomyopathy

Answer

endomyocardial fibrosis

Question 11

A 40-year-old lady comes to outdoor clinic with complaints of sudden onset chest pain. The chest X-ray shows bilateral pneumothorax. Examination reveals long arms, legs and fingers (arachnodactyly), scoliosis, high arched palate, joint hypermobility, and a pansystolic murmur at cardiac apex. Which one of the following diseases is most likely?

Accepted Answer

C. Marfan’s syndrome

Answer

Takayasu’s arteritis

Answer

Raynaud’s syndrome

Answer

Rheumatic heart disease – Mitral regurgitation

Question 12

Kussmaul’s sign is present in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

C. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy

Answer

Massive Pulmonary Embolism

Answer

Restrictive Cardiomyopathy

Answer

Right Ventricular Infarction

Question 13

A 30-year-old male is being evaluated for shortness of breath. On examination of the jugular venous pulse (JVP), there is a rise in the JVP on inspiration. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

A. Constrictive pericarditis

Answer

Atrial septal defect

Answer

Aortic regurgitation

Answer

Severe mitral stenosis

Question 14

A patient with peripheral edema has the following findings: a soft systolic murmur at the lower left sternal border with raised JVP showing prominent C-V wave. The murmur increases in intensity on deep inspiration. The most likely valvular abnormality is

Accepted Answer

C. tricuspid regurgitation

Answer

ventricular septal defect

Answer

mitral regurgitation

Answer

mitral valve prolapse

Question 15

Kussmaul’s sign is a clinical feature of

Accepted Answer

A. Constrictive pericarditis

Answer

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

Answer

Anteroseptal myocardial infarction

Answer

Dilated cardiomyopathy

Question 16

The height of the Jugular Venous Pulse is determined by:

Accepted Answer

A. Right atrial pressure

Answer

Right ventricle pressure

Answer

Left atrial pressure

Answer

Left ventricle pressure

Question 17

A 24-year-old man presents with acute onset shortness of breath with precordial chest pain. ECG reveals ST elevation with upward concavity and PR segment depression in lead V2 to V6 and reciprocal changes in lead aVR. The most likely diagnosis is:

Accepted Answer

B. Acute pericarditis

Answer

Anterior wall myocardial infarction

Answer

Anterior wall aneurysm

Answer

Aortic dissection

Question 18

Which of the following are typical physical findings in pericardial effusion?
1. Raised JVP
2. Hypotension
3. Oliguria
4. Water hammer pulse
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

A. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Question 19

Which of the following produce loud S1 on cardiac auscultation?
1. Anemia
2. Pregnancy
3. Thyrotoxicosis
4. Mitral regurgitation
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

A. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

2 and 3 only

Question 20

In which of the following cases does paradoxical splitting occur?
1. Severe aortic stenosis
2. Right bundle branch block
3. Right ventricular pacing
4. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

C. 1, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Question 21

Reverse splitting of second heart sound is most commonly seen in:

Accepted Answer

C. LBBB

Answer

ASD

Answer

Severe MR

Answer

Pulmonary hypertension

Question 22

Which of the following heart sounds are best heard with the bell of stethoscope?
I. Opening snap
II. Systolic click
III. Third heart sound
IV. Mid diastolic murmur
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

C. III and IV

Answer

I and IV

Answer

II and III only

Answer

I, II and III

Question 23

Which of the following conditions can produce a third heart sound (S3) on auscultation?
1. Young age
2. Pregnancy
3. Left ventricular failure
4. Mitral stenosis
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

A. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Question 24

Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Opening Snap in cardiac auscultation?

Accepted Answer

A. It is a high pitched diastolic sound

Answer

It is due to opening of stenosed aortic valve

Answer

It indicates pulmonary arterial hypertension

Answer

It precedes the aortic component of second heart sound

Question 25

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Opening Snap (OS) in a patient of mitral stenosis?

Accepted Answer

C. OS moves closer to the second sound (S2) as the stenosis becomes more severe

Answer

OS is best heard with the bell of stethoscope

Answer

Intensity of OS becomes louder when the valve is calcified

Answer

OS is best heard at the second left intercostal space

Question 26

A patient has a cardiac murmur that is best heard at the right second intercostal space. It increases with expiration. Also, the murmur reduces in intensity during sustained handgrip but increases in intensity on inhalation of amyl nitrite. The likely lesion is

Accepted Answer

B. aortic stenosis

Answer

ventricular septal defect

Answer

hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

Answer

mitral regurgitation

Question 27

A 70-year-old man with dyspnoea on exertion has been found to have a single second heart sound and a loud diamond-shaped, rough quality systolic murmur best heard at the right 2nd intercostal space, radiating to the right carotid artery. Which one of the following is the likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

C. Aortic stenosis

Answer

Patent ductus arteriosus

Answer

Ventricular septal defect

Answer

Pulmonary stenosis

Question 28

Which one of the following is correct with regard to Carey Coombs murmur?

Accepted Answer

B. Soft mid-diastolic murmur due to mitral valvulitis

Answer

Soft systolic murmur due to mitral regurgitation

Answer

Harsh early diastolic murmur due to aortic regurgitation

Answer

Blowing late systolic murmur due to aortic stenosis

Question 29

The murmur of mitral regurgitation is best heard at

Accepted Answer

C. Cardiac apex

Answer

Tricuspid area

Answer

Aortic area

Answer

Pulmonary area

Question 30

In the modified Duke criteria for infective endocarditis, which one of the following is not a major criterion?

Accepted Answer

C. Roth’s spots

Answer

New partial dehiscence of prosthetic valve

Answer

Positive blood culture

Answer

New valvular regurgitation

Question 31

Which one of the following is a manifestation of vascular phenomenon in modified Duke criteria?

Accepted Answer

C. Janeway’s lesions

Answer

Osler’s node

Answer

Roth’s spots

Answer

Glomerulonephritis

Question 32

Cardiac outflow tract defect, thymic hypoplasia, cleft palate and hypocalcemia are clinical features of which gene disorder?

Accepted Answer

D. DiGeorge syndrome

Answer

Angelman syndrome

Answer

Williams syndrome

Answer

Smith-Magenis syndrome

Question 33

In an ECG recording, P wave is produced by:

Accepted Answer

A. Atrial depolarisation

Answer

Atrial repolarisation

Answer

Ventricular depolarisation

Answer

Ventricular repolarisation

Question 34

Which one of the following is not a differential diagnosis of ST segment elevation in ECG?

Accepted Answer

D. Hypocalcemia

Answer

Acute pericarditis

Answer

Trauma to ventricles

Answer

Hypothermia

Question 35

Osborn waves in ECG show prolonged repolarization with a distinctive convex elevation of the ‘J’ point. These waves are associated with

Accepted Answer

A. systemic hypothermia

Answer

acute pericarditis

Answer

acute myocarditis

Answer

Brugada syndrome

Question 36

Which of the following statements are true about the PR interval?
1. It denotes atrial depolarization.
2. Normal duration is 0.12 seconds to 0.20 seconds.
3. Prolongation denotes impaired AV nodal conduction.
4. A short PR interval occurs in WPW syndrome.
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

D. 2, 3 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Question 37

A chronic alcoholic develops a paroxysm of palpitations after alcohol binge. Which of the following arrhythmias is most likely?

Accepted Answer

D. Atrial fibrillation

Answer

Ventricular fibrillation

Answer

Ventricular premature complex

Answer

Atrial flutter

Question 38

Which one of the following is NOT a common cause of atrial fibrillation?

Accepted Answer

B. Hypothyroidism

Answer

Mitral regurgitation

Answer

Hypertension

Answer

Acute myocardial infarction

Question 39

Which one of the following modalities is NOT used in the treatment of ventricular tachycardia?

Accepted Answer

D. Injection Adenosine

Answer

DC Cardioversion

Answer

Injection Lignocaine

Answer

Injection Amiodarone

Question 40

Which one of the following is a non-shockable rhythm in respect to use of AED (Automatic External Defibrillator)?

Accepted Answer

D. Pulseless electrical activity

Answer

Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia

Answer

Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

Answer

Ventricular fibrillation

Question 41

A 35-year-old patient presents in the Emergency with sudden onset palpitations. His heart rate is 150/minute and gets reverted after carotid massage. The most probable diagnosis is:

Accepted Answer

A. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

Answer

Ventricular tachycardia

Answer

Ventricular fibrillation

Answer

Atrial flutter with block

Question 42

Which of the following electro-cardiographic findings are manifestations of digitalis intoxication?
1. Ventricular bigeminy
2. Ventricular tachycardia
3. Atrial flutter
4. Atrial tachycardia with variable block
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

B. 1, 2 and 4

Answer

1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Question 43

Which one of the following responses to intravenous adenosine is correctly matched?

Accepted Answer

B. Atrio-ventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia – Termination

Answer

Atrial fibrillation – Termination

Answer

Ventricular tachycardia – Termination and complete recovery

Answer

Atrial flutter – Termination and complete recovery

Question 44

A patient with ischemic heart disease on regular follow-up has a resting heart rate of 90 beats/minute. The patient is taking metoprolol 50 mg twice a day. Which one of the following drugs may be added to his prescription if he also has signs of heart failure?

Accepted Answer

D. Ivabradine

Answer

Ranolazine

Answer

Diclofenac

Answer

Prednisolone

Question 45

Elderly man with history of Diabetes mellitus and coronary artery disease comes for follow-up, with complaints of muscle pains. Which one of the following drugs could be the most likely cause?

Accepted Answer

D. Atorvastatin

Answer

Aspirin

Answer

Glimepiride

Answer

Enalapril

Question 46

A 52-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease is on sublingual nitroglycerin SOS, metoprolol, aspirin and enalapril for the last year. He now complains of breathlessness and wheeze. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be implicated for this new symptom?

Accepted Answer

B. Metoprolol

Answer

Enalapril

Answer

Nitroglycerin

Answer

Aspirin

Question 47

A patient with Atrial Fibrillation on regular treatment presents with photosensitivity, skin discoloration and peripheral neuropathy. Which drug may be implicated?

Accepted Answer

C. Amiodarone

Answer

Digoxin

Answer

Disopyramide

Answer

Bisoprolol

Question 48

Which of the following are correct about Ivabradine?
1. It may be of use in severe heart failure
2. It acts on SA node
3. It reduces heart rate
4. It is effective in atrial fibrillation
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

A. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

2 and 3 only

Question 49

Which of the following drugs may be associated with leg swelling?
1. Calcium channel blockers
2. NSAIDs
3. Glucocorticoids
4. Mineralocorticoids
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

1 and 2 only

Answer

2, 3 and 4 only

Answer

3 and 4 only

Question 50

Which one of the following drugs is a Direct Renin Inhibitor?

Accepted Answer

C. Aliskiren

Answer

Benedipine

Answer

Azilsartan

Answer

Lisinopril

Question 51

All of the following are causes of systolic hypertension with wide pulse pressure EXCEPT:

Accepted Answer

D. Aortic stenosis

Answer

Aortic regurgitation

Answer

Thyrotoxicosis

Answer

Patent ductus arteriosus

Question 52

Which of the following measures can help reduce the risk of systemic hypertension?
1. Reduction in dietary intake of common salt
2. Controlling weight for age
3. Increasing potassium rich foods in the diet
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

1 and 2 only

Answer

2 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only

Question 53

DASH diet plan is advocated in the control of which one of the following diseases?

Accepted Answer

C. Hypertension

Answer

Cancer

Answer

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

Answer

Rheumatic heart disease

Question 54

The “DASH diet” is a lifestyle modification for management of which of these conditions?

Accepted Answer

D. Hypertension

Answer

Cancer

Answer

Diabetes

Answer

Anemia

Question 55

In case of hypertensive emergency in a child, blood pressure should be reduced by up to:

Accepted Answer

C. 10% in the first hour

Answer

10% over the first 8 hours

Answer

15% over the first 8 hours

Answer

15% in the first hour

Question 56

Insulin Resistance Syndrome (Syndrome X) is associated with which of the following?
1. Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
2. Hyperinsulinemia
3. Dyslipidemia
4. Hypercalcemia
Select the correct answer using the code:

Accepted Answer

A. 1, 2 and 3

Answer

1, 2 and 4

Answer

1, 3 and 4

Answer

2, 3 and 4

Question 57

An 18-year-old boy got frostbite on his left foot after working in a snowy field for 5–6 hours. He complained of pain, numbness, and limited movement of his toes. The skin appeared white and waxy. Which one of the following is contraindicated as initial treatment?

Accepted Answer

B. Massage

Answer

Rewarming by immersion of feet in a water bath at 40–44°C

Answer

Cleaning of the injured area with soap

Answer

Use of analgesia and sterile dressing

Q1. All of the following are indications for treadmill testing / exercise-testing EXCEPT:

Q2. A 60-year-old man comes to emergency with history of chest pain, which is acute onset. The ECG shows ST depression and T waves inversion. Cardiac biomarkers in blood are not elevated. What will be the appropriate management?

Q3. A 50-year-old man reports to Emergency with breathlessness, palpitations and acute chest pain. On auscultation, there is systolic murmur at apex and ECG shows ST elevations in anterior chest leads. Which one of the following would be the next choice of investigation?

Q4. A 60-year-old diabetic female presents with acute myocardial infarction. ECG changes include ST elevation greater than 1 mm in lead aVR. The likely localization of thrombosis is in

Q6. The SA node is situated at the junction of:

Q7. High output cardiac failure is caused by which of the following diseases? 1. Beri-Beri 2. Severe anaemia 3. Thyrotoxicosis Select the correct answer using the code:

Q8. Left atrial dilatation on X-ray chest is characterized by which of the following? 1. Straight left heart border 2. Rounding of left heart border 3. Double cardiac shadow 4. Widening of the angle of carina Select the correct answer using the code:

Q10. Thickened ventricular wall with normal diastolic function is a feature of

Q12. Kussmaul’s sign is present in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

Q13. A 30-year-old male is being evaluated for shortness of breath. On examination of the jugular venous pulse (JVP), there is a rise in the JVP on inspiration. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Q14. A patient with peripheral edema has the following findings: a soft systolic murmur at the lower left sternal border with raised JVP showing prominent C-V wave. The murmur increases in intensity on deep inspiration. The most likely valvular abnormality is

Q15. Kussmaul’s sign is a clinical feature of

Q16. The height of the Jugular Venous Pulse is determined by:

Q17. A 24-year-old man presents with acute onset shortness of breath with precordial chest pain. ECG reveals ST elevation with upward concavity and PR segment depression in lead V2 to V6 and reciprocal changes in lead aVR. The most likely diagnosis is:

Q18. Which of the following are typical physical findings in pericardial effusion? 1. Raised JVP 2. Hypotension 3. Oliguria 4. Water hammer pulse Select the correct answer using the code:

Q19. Which of the following produce loud S1 on cardiac auscultation? 1. Anemia 2. Pregnancy 3. Thyrotoxicosis 4. Mitral regurgitation Select the correct answer using the code:

Q20. In which of the following cases does paradoxical splitting occur? 1. Severe aortic stenosis 2. Right bundle branch block 3. Right ventricular pacing 4. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy Select the correct answer using the code:

Q21. Reverse splitting of second heart sound is most commonly seen in:

Q22. Which of the following heart sounds are best heard with the bell of stethoscope? I. Opening snap II. Systolic click III. Third heart sound IV. Mid diastolic murmur Select the correct answer using the code:

Q23. Which of the following conditions can produce a third heart sound (S3) on auscultation? 1. Young age 2. Pregnancy 3. Left ventricular failure 4. Mitral stenosis Select the correct answer using the code:

Q24. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Opening Snap in cardiac auscultation?

Q25. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Opening Snap (OS) in a patient of mitral stenosis?

Q26. A patient has a cardiac murmur that is best heard at the right second intercostal space. It increases with expiration. Also, the murmur reduces in intensity during sustained handgrip but increases in intensity on inhalation of amyl nitrite. The likely lesion is

Q27. A 70-year-old man with dyspnoea on exertion has been found to have a single second heart sound and a loud diamond-shaped, rough quality systolic murmur best heard at the right 2nd intercostal space, radiating to the right carotid artery. Which one of the following is the likely diagnosis?

Q28. Which one of the following is correct with regard to Carey Coombs murmur?

Q29. The murmur of mitral regurgitation is best heard at

Q30. In the modified Duke criteria for infective endocarditis, which one of the following is not a major criterion?

Q31. Which one of the following is a manifestation of vascular phenomenon in modified Duke criteria?

Q32. Cardiac outflow tract defect, thymic hypoplasia, cleft palate and hypocalcemia are clinical features of which gene disorder?

Q33. In an ECG recording, P wave is produced by:

Q34. Which one of the following is not a differential diagnosis of ST segment elevation in ECG?

Q35. Osborn waves in ECG show prolonged repolarization with a distinctive convex elevation of the ‘J’ point. These waves are associated with

Q37. A chronic alcoholic develops a paroxysm of palpitations after alcohol binge. Which of the following arrhythmias is most likely?

Q38. Which one of the following is NOT a common cause of atrial fibrillation?

Q39. Which one of the following modalities is NOT used in the treatment of ventricular tachycardia?

Q40. Which one of the following is a non-shockable rhythm in respect to use of AED (Automatic External Defibrillator)?

Q41. A 35-year-old patient presents in the Emergency with sudden onset palpitations. His heart rate is 150/minute and gets reverted after carotid massage. The most probable diagnosis is:

Q42. Which of the following electro-cardiographic findings are manifestations of digitalis intoxication? 1. Ventricular bigeminy 2. Ventricular tachycardia 3. Atrial flutter 4. Atrial tachycardia with variable block Select the correct answer using the code:

Q43. Which one of the following responses to intravenous adenosine is correctly matched?

Q44. A patient with ischemic heart disease on regular follow-up has a resting heart rate of 90 beats/minute. The patient is taking metoprolol 50 mg twice a day. Which one of the following drugs may be added to his prescription if he also has signs of heart failure?

Q45. Elderly man with history of Diabetes mellitus and coronary artery disease comes for follow-up, with complaints of muscle pains. Which one of the following drugs could be the most likely cause?

Q46. A 52-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease is on sublingual nitroglycerin SOS, metoprolol, aspirin and enalapril for the last year. He now complains of breathlessness and wheeze. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be implicated for this new symptom?

Q47. A patient with Atrial Fibrillation on regular treatment presents with photosensitivity, skin discoloration and peripheral neuropathy. Which drug may be implicated?

Q48. Which of the following are correct about Ivabradine? 1. It may be of use in severe heart failure 2. It acts on SA node 3. It reduces heart rate 4. It is effective in atrial fibrillation Select the correct answer using the code:

Q49. Which of the following drugs may be associated with leg swelling? 1. Calcium channel blockers 2. NSAIDs 3. Glucocorticoids 4. Mineralocorticoids Select the correct answer using the code:

Q50. Which one of the following drugs is a Direct Renin Inhibitor?

Q51. All of the following are causes of systolic hypertension with wide pulse pressure EXCEPT:

Q52. Which of the following measures can help reduce the risk of systemic hypertension? 1. Reduction in dietary intake of common salt 2. Controlling weight for age 3. Increasing potassium rich foods in the diet Select the correct answer using the code:

Q53. DASH diet plan is advocated in the control of which one of the following diseases?

Q54. The “DASH diet” is a lifestyle modification for management of which of these conditions?

Q55. In case of hypertensive emergency in a child, blood pressure should be reduced by up to:

Q56. Insulin Resistance Syndrome (Syndrome X) is associated with which of the following? 1. Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus 2. Hyperinsulinemia 3. Dyslipidemia 4. Hypercalcemia Select the correct answer using the code:

Q57. An 18-year-old boy got frostbite on his left foot after working in a snowy field for 5–6 hours. He complained of pain, numbness, and limited movement of his toes. The skin appeared white and waxy. Which one of the following is contraindicated as initial treatment?