2025 P1 Q64

Q1. Which one of the following is the myelinating cell of Central Nervous System?

1. Astrocyte
2. Microglia
3. Schwann cell
4. Oligodendrocyte

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 394

2025 P1 Q84

Q2. Glymphatics is the lymphatic structure of which system?

1. Central Nervous System
2. Respiratory
3. Renal
4. Gastro-intestinal

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 401

2020 P1 Q40

Q3. Constructional skills is a function of which lobe?

1. Dominant temporal lobe
2. Non dominant parietal lobe
3. Frontal lobe
4. Non dominant temporal lobe

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 16

2021 P1 Q45

Q4. Lesion of dominant parietal lobe produces which of the following? 1. Dysphasia 2. Acalculia 3. Dyslexia 4. Contralateral neglect Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 83

2022 P1 Q52

Q5. Tests for graphesthesia and stereognosis are used clinically to assess:

1. Cortical sensation
2. Posterior column
3. Cerebellar function
4. Lateral spinothalamic tract

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 155

2024 P1 Q36

Q6. Contralateral homonymous lower quadrantanopia is the type of visual loss seen when the lesion is located at one of the following anatomical locations?

1. Frontal lobe
2. Temporal lobe
3. Parietal lobe
4. Occipital lobe

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 289

2025 P1 Q33

Q7. Contralateral homonymous upper quadrantanopia is the type of visual loss seen when the lesion is located at which one of the following anatomical locations?

1. Frontal lobe
2. Temporal lobe
3. Parietal lobe
4. Occipital lobe

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 381

2020 P2 Q22

Q8. Which one of the following cranial nerves does NOT supply to the external ear?

1. Cranial nerve V
2. Cranial nerve VI
3. Cranial nerve VII
4. Cranial nerve IX

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 43

2024 P1 Q38

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding cluster headache: 1. The headaches are periodic, beginning at the same time for weeks at a stretch. 2. Patients experience severe, unilateral periorbital pain which typically lasts from 30–90 minutes. 3. The headache is accompanied with autonomic features such as ipsilateral tearing, nasal congestion and conjunctival injection. 4. Subcutaneous injection of Sumatriptan or inhalation of 100% oxygen may be beneficial in halting acute attacks. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 3 and 4 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 290

2024 P1 Q39

Q10. A 22-year-old lady presented with complaint of chronic daily headache. She has prior history of migraine but increasingly unrelieved with analgesics. She has history of using Sumatriptan almost daily since the last three weeks. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Sub-arachnoid hemorrhage
2. Cluster headache
3. Medication overuse headache
4. Trigeminal neuralgia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 290

2025 P1 Q95

Q11. Which one of the following is a secondary cause of headache?

1. Migraine
2. Tension-type headache
3. Trigeminal autonomic cephalalgia
4. Medication overuse headache

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 405

2025 P1 Q34

Q12. Which of the following are clinical features of migraine? I. It is associated with dilatation of extracranial vessels II. Common migraine is seen without Aura III. Aura is most often visual Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I and II only
3. II and III only
4. I and III only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 381

2020 P1 Q39

Q13. Drug choice for the treatment of Trigeminal Neuralgia is:

1. Carbamazepine
2. Aceclofenac
3. Thiamine
4. Prednisolone

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 16

2025 P1 Q35

Q14. A 50-year-old man presents with brief episodes of lancinating unilateral facial pain, involving the buccal distribution. Pain is triggered by washing face with cold water. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Migraine
2. Medication overuse headache
3. Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania
4. Trigeminal neuralgia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 381

2024 P1 Q41

Q15. A 75-year-old man presented with temporal headache, jaw pain, exacerbated by chewing and talking. Which one of the following investigations will most likely help in diagnosis?

1. Temporal artery biopsy
2. Electromyography
3. MRI of the brain
4. Carotid colour Doppler

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 291

2023 P1 Q94

Q16. Which of the following are the features of post-lumbar puncture headache? 1. Dull aching occipitofrontal headache 2. Worse on waking but improves during the day 3. Recumbency usually improves the headache within minutes Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 232

2020 P1 Q47

Q17. A 35-year-old man presents with low grade fever and headache for last five weeks with signs of meningitis. He undergoes lumbar puncture (LP) and a day later reports worsening headache. Which one of the following features is NOT consistent with diagnosis of “Post-LP” headache?

1. Post-LP headache usually begins within 48 hours
2. Post-LP headache worsens in sitting position
3. Post-LP headache is most severe upon waking up
4. Post-LP headache may improve with caffeine intake

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 19

2023 P1 Q23

Q18. Focal seizures may be associated with which of the following? 1. Jacksonian march 2. Todd’s paralysis 3. Epilepsia partialis continua Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 212

2023 P1 Q24

Q19. Typical absence seizures are characterized by:

1. abrupt 3 Hz spike-and-slow wave discharges on EEG
2. postictal confusion in children
3. multifocal structural abnormalities of brain
4. less responsiveness to anti-convulsant as compared to atypical absence seizures

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 213

2024 P1 Q40

Q20. Consider the following with regard to trigger factors for seizures: 1. Flickering lights 2. Recreational drug misuse 3. Non-compliance to treatment with antiepileptic drugs 4. Sleep deprivation Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 3 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 290

2025 P1 Q36

Q21. Which of the following are trigger factors for seizures? I. Sleep deprivation II. Missed doses of antiepileptic drugs III. Recreational drug misuse IV. Physical exhaustion Select the correct answer using the code:

1. II and III only
2. I and IV only
3. I, II and III only
4. I, II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 382

2025 P1 Q37

Q22. Which one of the following childhood epileptic disorders often needs long term treatment with anti epileptic drugs?

1. Benign neonatal seizures
2. Febrile seizures
3. Benign Rolandic epilepsy
4. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 382

2020 P1 Q38

Q23. A 60-year-old patient is admitted in emergency with seizure, aphasia and altered sensorium. He has a fever and headache for the preceding 3 days. The CSF examination is unremarkable. What would be the probable diagnosis?

1. Multiple sclerosis (MS)
2. Tubercular meningitis
3. Pyogenic (bacterial) meningitis
4. Viral encephalitis

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 16

2021 P1 Q43

Q24. Consider the following statements regarding Intracerebral Hemorrhage (ICH): 1. It accounts for 35% of all strokes. 2. Most common site of hypertensive ICH is cerebral cortex. 3. Use of cocaine and methamphetamine is a frequent cause of stroke in young age. 4. Hypertensive ICH usually results from spontaneous rupture of small penetrating artery deep in brain. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 82

2022 P1 Q32

Q25. Which of the following are risk factors for Stroke? 1. Sickle cell disease 2. Cigarette smoking 3. Hypofibrinogenemia 4. Atrial fibrillation Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 150

2023 P1 Q25

Q26. Which of the following are contra-indications to thrombolysis in acute ischemic stroke? 1. Recent head injury 2. Recent MI 3. Hypertension > 150/100 mm Hg 4. GI bleeding in last 3 weeks Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 213

2025 P1 Q77

Q27. The most common cause for non-traumatic sub-arachnoid haemorrhage is:

1. A-V malformation
2. Saccular aneurysm rupture
3. Extension from primary cerebral haemorrhage
4. Idiopathic

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 398

2021 P1 Q98

Q28. A child presents with headache and vomiting in the emergency room following a fall from the bed. Which one of the following treatment modalities is not recommended in the emergency room?

1. Intravenous mannitol administration
2. Administration of hypertonic (3%) solution
3. Elevate the head end by 30 degrees
4. Therapeutic lumbar puncture

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 98

2020 P1 Q44

Q29. A 68-year-old male presented in OPD with complaints of progressive small handwriting. On examination, he had resting tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity and postural instability. This patient is suffering most likely from:

1. Parkinson’s disease
2. Vascular dementia
3. Alzheimer’s disease
4. Frontotemporal dementia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 18

2020 P1 Q45

Q30. An elderly patient presents with abnormal gait. He has a wide base freezing gait with imbalance, comprising short strides, shuffling along the floor and difficulty with starts and turns. Heel-Shin test is normal. Which one of the following is the most likely disorder?

1. Cerebellar ataxia
2. Sensory ataxia
3. Frontal gait disorder
4. Parkinson’s disease

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 18

2021 P1 Q47

Q31. Which of the following are clinical features of Parkinson’s disease? 1. Bradykinesia 2. Rigidity 3. Spastic gait 4. Mask-like face Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 83

2022 P1 Q27

Q32. Which of the following are correct regarding Essential Tremors? 1. It may present at any age 2. Head is almost never involved 3. Tremor may improve with a small amount of alcohol Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 148

2022 P1 Q28

Q33. Which of the following drugs may be associated with Parkinson’s disease? 1. Atypical antipsychotic drugs 2. Lithium 3. MPTP (methyl-phenyl-tetrahydro-pyridine) Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 148

2022 P1 Q29

Q34. Which of the following are suggestive of Parkinson’s disease? 1. Lead pipe rigidity 2. Cogwheel rigidity 3. Festinating gait 4. Romberg test positive Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 148

2022 P1 Q30

Q35. Which of the following are correct regarding Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease? 1. Motor symptoms are almost always initially symmetrical 2. Non-motor symptoms include hyposmia and constipation 3. Cognition is spared in early disease 4. Speech may become softer and indistinct Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 148

2022 P1 Q31

Q36. Which of the following are correct with regard to Levodopa? 1. It is most effective for relieving tremors 2. Only a small portion of the total drug reaches the brain 3. Nausea may be offset by domperidone 4. It may trigger hallucinations Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 149

2024 P1 Q33

Q37. Consider the following clinical features: 1. Hypomimia 2. Dysphonia 3. Festination gait 4. Cogwheel rigidity. Which of the features given above are generally present in Parkinsonism? 1. Hypomimia 2. Dysphonia 3. Festination gait 4. Cogwheel rigidity Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 289

2024 P1 Q34

Q38. Circuits between the basal ganglia and the motor cortex constitute the extrapyramidal system which controls muscle tone, body posture and the initiation of movement. Lesions of the extrapyramidal system present clinically with:

1. Tremor and rigidity
2. Seizures
3. Urinary incontinence
4. Muscle wasting

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 289

2025 P1 Q38

Q39. Which of the following are clinical features of Parkinson’s disease? I. Reduced eye blinking II. Drooling of saliva III. Soft voice IV. Macrographia Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 382

2021 P1 Q38

Q40. Which one of the following is the single strongest risk factor for dementia?

1. Increasing age
2. Alcoholism
3. Positive family history
4. Systemic illness

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 80

2021 P1 Q40

Q41. Visual hallucination is characteristic of which type of dementia?

1. Diffuse Lewy body dementia
2. Frontotemporal dementia
3. Alzheimer’s dementia
4. Vascular dementia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 81

2024 P1 Q88

Q42. Which of the following are inherited causes of dementia? 1. Alzheimer’s disease 2. Huntington’s disease 3. Wilson’s disease 4. Punch-drunk syndrome Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 306

2025 P1 Q62

Q43. Which of the following are causes of reversible dementia? I. Hypothyroidism II. Vitamin B12 deficiency III. Dementia with Lewy body IV. Thiamine deficiency Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 393

2025 P1 Q63

Q44. Which of the following are clinical features of Fronto-Temporal dementia? I. Personality change II. Language disturbance III. Memory may be preserved in early stages IV. Anti-cholinesterase are the drug of choice for treatment Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 393

2025 P1 Q83

Q45. Which of the following are features of Alzheimer’s disease? I. It is a disorder of cerebral cortical function II. Only short-term memory is affected III. Patients deny that there is anything wrong IV. Depression is commonly present Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 401

2024 P1 Q35

Q46. Consider the following statements regarding Transient Global Amnesia (TGA): 1. TGA mainly affects middle aged persons who present with abrupt, discrete loss of anterograde memory lasting for few hours. 2. During the episode, the patients are unable to record new memories resulting in repetitive questioning. 3. Consciousness is impaired during the episode and the patient is unable to perform even simple motor functions. 4. After 4-6 hours, memory function and behavior return to normal but the patient has complete and persistent amnesia for the duration of the episode. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 289

2025 P1 Q67

Q47. The 4A Test is a screening tool for detection of delirium. Which of the following parameters are included in the 4AT tool? I. Alertness II. Apnoea III. Abbreviated Mental Test (AMT4) IV. Attention Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 395

2025 P1 Q86

Q48. In clinical assessment of an elderly patient, ‘the get up and go test’ is used to evaluate which of the following?

1. Gait and balance
2. Cognition
3. Driving ability
4. Urinary incontinence

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 401

2020 P1 Q41

Q49. Vertical gaze palsy with Convergence Retraction Nystagmus is seen in:

1. Weber syndrome
2. Millard Gubler syndrome
3. Claude syndrome
4. Parinaud syndrome

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 17

2020 P1 Q42

Q50. A patient looking forward was found to have his right eye deviated downwards and outwards with pupil dilated. He is suffering from:

1. Left 3rd nerve palsy
2. Left 6th nerve palsy
3. Right 4th nerve palsy
4. Right 3rd nerve palsy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 17

2024 P1 Q37

Q51. Which of the following correctly describes the primary position of the right eye in right 3rd cranial nerve palsy?

1. Downwards and outwards
2. Downwards and inwards
3. Upwards and outwards
4. Upwards and inwards

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 289

2021 P1 Q44

Q52. A 21-year-old young lady presents with unilateral facial weakness. She is unable to close her eye on the affected side and there are vesicles in her ear. She is suffering from:

1. 8th Cranial Nerve Palsy
2. 3rd Cranial Nerve Palsy
3. 5th Cranial Nerve Palsy
4. 7th Cranial Nerve Palsy

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 83

2025 P1 Q50

Q53. Which of the following is the most favourable prognostic parameter in Bell’s palsy?

1. Incomplete paralysis in the first week
2. Mild CSF lymphocytosis
3. Denervation in EMG after 10 days
4. Pain behind the ear

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 387

2021 P1 Q36

Q54. The presence of Beevor’s sign on neurological examination is characteristic of spinal cord lesion at which one of the following levels?

1. T3–T4
2. T7–T8
3. T9–T10
4. None

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 80

2021 P1 Q37

Q55. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding lower motor neuron type of lesion?

1. Fasciculation is absent
2. Deep tendon reflexes are increased
3. Clonus is present
4. Plantar reflex shows flexor response

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 80

2024 P2 Q29

Q56. Upper motor neuron lesions are characterized by which of the following? 1. Increased tone / spasticity 2. Hyperreflexia 3. Absent plantar response 4. Motor weakness Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 329

2020 P1 Q43

Q57. All of the following are features of Cauda Equina syndrome EXCEPT:

1. Low back pain
2. Lower limb areflexia
3. Loss of bladder function
4. Extensor plantar response

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 17

2023 P2 Q34

Q58. Consider the following clinical features: 1. Low back pain 2. Saddle anesthesia 3. Motor weakness in the lower extremities 4. Variable rectal and urinary symptoms. Which is the correct answer in case of cauda equina syndrome? 1. Low back pain 2. Saddle anesthesia 3. Motor weakness in the lower extremities 4. Variable rectal and urinary symptoms Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 3 and 4
2. 1 and 2
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 250

2025 P2 Q10

Q59. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Cauda equina syndrome? I. Its presenting symptoms are perineal numbness, painless urinary retention and fecal incontinence. II. Urgent investigation with MRI is required. III. It is present most commonly in the 45-60 year age group. IV. Confirmed cases require early surgical decompression. Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 420

2022 P1 Q33

Q60. Which of the following are correct in respect of Myasthenia gravis? 1. Symptoms worsen towards the end of the day 2. There may be difficulty in chewing and swallowing 3. Acetylcholine receptors in the pre-junctional membrane are involved 4. Penicillamine may precipitate similar illness Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 4 only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 150

2022 P1 Q49

Q61. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is associated with which of the following features? 1. Pain and tingling in hands at night 2. Weakness of thumb abduction 3. Loss of sensation over the lateral half of the palm 4. Atrophy of hypothenar eminence Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 153

2023 P1 Q26

Q62. Which one of the following distinguishes axonal degeneration from segmental demyelination on electrophysiological studies?

1. Distal latency is normal in axonal degeneration and prolonged in segmental demyelination
2. Conduction velocity is slow in axonal degeneration and normal in segmental demyelination
3. Conduction block is present in axonal degeneration and absent in segmental demyelination
4. Temporal dispersion is prominent in axonal degeneration and absent in segmental demyelination

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 213

2024 P1 Q77

Q63. A patient developed difficulty in standing from a seated position, walking up steps, squatting and lifting arms overhead. Chronic therapy with which of the following drugs is likely to result in such presentation?

1. Acetaminophen
2. Fexofenadine
3. Glucocorticoids
4. Metformin

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 303

2025 P1 Q76

Q64. What are the components to establish the diagnosis of Brain Death? I. Absent brain stem reflexes II. Apnoea in presence of elevated PCO₂ III. Hypothermia IV. Irreversible and unresponsive coma Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II and IV only

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 398

2025 P1 Q81

Q65. Out of the following areas of brain, which area is most commonly affected on brain imaging in Wilson’s disease?

1. Cerebellum
2. Sub-cortex
3. Thalamus
4. Basal ganglia

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 400

2022 P1 Q60

Q66. Which of the following drugs can cause Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension? 1. Tetracycline 2. Retinoid 3. Vitamin A 4. Sulfonamides Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 157

2022 P1 Q59

Q67. In a healthy young adult, what proportion of sleep time is comprised of Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep?

1. 5-10%
2. 20-25%
3. 45-50%
4. 70-75%

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 156

2021 P1 Q18

Q68. A 60-year-old obese person (weighing 110 kg) has excessive daytime sleepiness, morning headache, irritability and mood disturbances, with dry mouth, nocturnal heartburn and diaphoresis of the chest and neck. Which one of the following will be the best investigation to diagnose the patient?

1. Ambulatory Blood Pressure Monitoring (ABPM)
2. 24-hour Holter Monitoring
3. Echocardiography
4. Overnight Polysomnogram

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 75

2021 P1 Q89

Q69. Which of the following are the diseases associated with DNA repeat sequences? 1. Huntington’s disease 2. Myotonic dystrophy 3. Friedreich’s ataxia 4. Klinefelter syndrome Select the correct answer using the code:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 96

2020 P1 Q93

Q70. Which one of the following is most appropriate to describe classic heat stroke?

1. Core body temperature rises above 44°C with headache, nausea, and loss of consciousness
2. Core body temperature rises above 40°C with muscle tremors, confusion, loss of consciousness and loss of sweating
3. Core body temperature rises above 38°C with increased sweating, tachypnoea, tachycardia, and loss of consciousness
4. Core body temperature is above 40°C with disorientation, increased sweating, peripheral vasodilation, tachycardia, and loss of consciousness

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 31

2025 P1 Q73

Q71. Which of the following statements are typical for classic heat stroke? I. Older patient II. Normokalemia III. Hyponatremia IV. Marked lactic acidosis Select the correct answer using the code:

1. I and III
2. I and II
3. III and IV
4. II and IV

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 397

2025 P1 Q80

Q72. A 28-year female presented to emergency with fever, agitation and delirium. She was on regular medication of Carbimazole 40 mg daily, but missed her doses for the last 2 days. Which of the following scoring systems would you like to do to assess severity of disease?

1. DAS 28 score
2. Burch-Wartofsky score
3. Expanded Disability Status Scale
4. Sequential Organ Failure Assessment Score

Answer & explanation — reveal it in the interactive practice above.

PYQ 2020–2025 — page 399