Crack UPSC CMS with confidence

Q22. A 58-year-old man has an estimated glomerular filtration rate of 52 mL/min/1.73 m² on two occasions four months apart, with an albumin-creatinine ratio of 45 mg/g. The correct classification is:

Explanation:

• Stage 3 is SUBDIVIDED, and the question turns on knowing where the line falls
• 3A — filtration rate 45 to 59
• 3B — filtration rate 30 to 44
• This patient at 52 sits in 3A
• Why the subdivision matters — 3B carries appreciably higher cardiovascular risk and triggers closer surveillance
• The other half of the definition — the abnormality must PERSIST for three months or more — satisfied here at four months
• A single low reading, however low, is not chronic kidney disease

Q21. A 48-year-old has a sudden ‘worst headache of my life’ (thunderclap) with neck stiffness and photophobia. A non-contrast CT at 12 hours is reported as normal. What is the next best step to confirm or exclude the diagnosis? [ Single best answer ]

Explanation: A thunderclap headache suggests subarachnoid haemorrhage. CT is very sensitive early but misses some bleeds after 6–12 h, so a normal CT does not exclude SAH; lumbar puncture (ideally >12 h after onset) looking for xanthochromia confirms it, after which CT angiography localises the aneurysm.

Q36. Which one of the following is an absolute contraindication to percutaneous renal biopsy?

Explanation: Uncontrolled hypertension is listed as an absolute contraindication in your notes, tagged UPSC CMS 2024. The other three options are all standard indications for biopsy, which is the trap — the question rewards a candidate who has read the notes.

Q6. Match the type of larval migration in List I with its causative organism in List II. [ Match the list ]

Explanation:

• A — Cutaneous larva migrans → Ancylostoma braziliense: the dog/cat hookworm; an itchy serpiginous creeping eruption where man is a dead-end host. Asked in 2026
• B — Visceral larva migrans → Toxocara canis: ingested eggs; larvae migrate through liver, lung and eye with marked eosinophilia.
• C — Larva currens → Strongyloides stercoralis: a rapidly moving urticarial track (currens = 'running') from autoinfection around the perianal skin.
• D — Swimmer's itch → avian schistosomes: cercariae penetrate skin in water and die, producing a self-limiting cercarial dermatitis.
• The discriminator is speed and route: A. braziliense creeps slowly, Strongyloides runs fast (larva currens), Toxocara goes deep (visceral), avian schistosomes cause a superficial itch.

Consider the following statements:
I. Sensitivity is 90%.    II. Specificity is 80%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2020 P2 Q86 · 2020 P2 Q97 · 2024 P2 Q120 · 2025 P2 Q87

Q CMS 2024: The most common type of brain tumours associated with neurofibromatosis type 1 brain tumour syndrome is

• most common benign tumor of the liver is := Haemangioma ^{cms 2023}
• best position to palpate the minimal enlargement of the spleen is := Palpation of left subcostal area in right lateral decubitus position ^{cms 2023}

• Neurogenic tumours (MC: schwannoma, neurofibroma)
• Cystic Hygroma (Brilliantly Transilluminant) ^{Q CMS 2025}
• Esophageal lesions (duplication cyst, leiomyoma)
• Paravertebral masses

Which of the following are essential steps of Fothergill's operation?

Select the correct answer using the code below.

• Indications = HETS: Humanitarian (rape/incest) · Eugenic (fetal anomaly) · Therapeutic (risk to mother) · Social (contraceptive failure)
• Permitted up to 24 weeks;
• 0–20 wk = 1 doctor,
• 20–24 wk = 2 doctors.

<9 week = Medical abortion ^Q

• ✔ 200 mg Mifepristone orally (Day 1)
• ✔ 800 µg Misoprostol after 24–48 hr (vaginal/buccal/sublingual)

With reference to occupational cancers, consider the following statements:

• Blindness (WHO) = < 3/60 in better eye with best correction.
• Blindness prevalence = 0.36%; visual impairment = < 6/18.
• Commonest cause = Cataract (62%); refractive error 19.7%.
• NPCB launched 1976 — India's first 100% centrally-sponsored programme.